Section 1: Integration Management (Q1–10)

1. What is the primary purpose of the Develop Project Charter process?
a) Define detailed project scope
b) Formally authorize the project and name the project manager
c) Create the work breakdown structure
d) Establish the project budget baseline
Answer: b) Formally authorize the project and name the project manager

2. What is the main output of the Develop Project Charter process?
a) Project Scope Statement
b) Business Case
c) Project Charter
d) Project Management Plan
Answer: c) Project Charter

3. Which document defines how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed?
a) Project Charter
b) Project Management Plan
c) Business Case
d) Benefits Management Plan
Answer: b) Project Management Plan

4. A project manager notices that a change request will affect the schedule and cost baselines. What should happen first?
a) Implement the change immediately to avoid delay
b) Submit the change through the Perform Integrated Change Control process
c) Ignore it if the sponsor is unavailable
d) Update the baselines directly without approval
Answer: b) Submit the change through the Perform Integrated Change Control process

5. Which body typically reviews and approves or rejects change requests on a project?
a) Project Management Office
b) Change Control Board (CCB)
c) Steering Committee only
d) Functional Manager
Answer: b) Change Control Board (CCB)

6. The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall project progress to meet performance objectives is called:
a) Direct and Manage Project Work
b) Monitor and Control Project Work
c) Manage Project Knowledge
d) Close Project or Phase
Answer: b) Monitor and Control Project Work

7. During project closure, what should the project manager primarily verify?
a) That the sponsor is satisfied verbally
b) That all work is completed and deliverables formally accepted
c) That the team has moved to a new project
d) That the budget was underspent
Answer: b) That all work is completed and deliverables formally accepted

8. A lessons learned register is primarily used to:
a) Assign blame for project failures
b) Capture knowledge for use on current and future projects
c) Replace the risk register
d) Track daily task completion
Answer: b) Capture knowledge for use on current and future projects

9. Which Integration Management process involves executing the work defined in the project management plan?
a) Direct and Manage Project Work
b) Develop Project Management Plan
c) Monitor and Control Project Work
d) Close Project or Phase
Answer: a) Direct and Manage Project Work

10. A project’s business case is best described as:
a) A schedule of deliverables
b) A document justifying the investment and expected benefits of the project
c) A risk mitigation plan
d) A stakeholder communication plan
Answer: b) A document justifying the investment and expected benefits of the project

Section 2: Scope Management (Q11–18)

11. What technique is used to subdivide project deliverables into smaller, manageable components?
a) Decomposition
b) Benchmarking
c) Parametric estimating
d) Trend analysis
Answer: a) Decomposition

12. The lowest level of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is called:
a) Deliverable
b) Control account
c) Work package
d) Activity
Answer: c) Work package

13. Which document describes the project’s deliverables and the work required to create them, in detail?
a) Project Charter
b) Scope Management Plan
c) Project Scope Statement
d) Requirements Traceability Matrix
Answer: c) Project Scope Statement

14. Gold plating in project scope refers to:
a) Adding extra features beyond what was agreed without client request
b) Delivering exactly what was scoped
c) Cutting scope to save cost
d) Formal scope change approved by the CCB
Answer: a) Adding extra features beyond what was agreed without client request

15. Validate Scope differs from Control Quality mainly because Validate Scope focuses on:
a) Correctness of deliverables against specifications
b) Formal acceptance of deliverables by the customer or sponsor
c) Defect repair
d) Internal process compliance
Answer: b) Formal acceptance of deliverables by the customer or sponsor

16. Uncontrolled expansion of product scope without adjustments to time, cost, or resources is known as:
a) Scope baseline
b) Scope creep
c) Progressive elaboration
d) Rolling wave planning
Answer: b) Scope creep

17. A document that links requirements to their origin and traces them throughout the project lifecycle is the:
a) Requirements Traceability Matrix
b) Scope Management Plan
c) WBS Dictionary
d) Stakeholder Register
Answer: a) Requirements Traceability Matrix

18. In agile projects, the equivalent of the traditional scope statement is often the:
a) Sprint Backlog
b) Product Backlog
c) Burndown Chart
d) Definition of Done only
Answer: b) Product Backlog

Section 3: Schedule Management (Q19–26)

19. Which technique estimates activity duration using historical data from similar past activities?
a) Analogous estimating
b) Bottom-up estimating
c) Three-point estimating
d) Parametric estimating
Answer: a) Analogous estimating

20. The critical path of a project is defined as:
a) The path with the most activities
b) The longest duration path through the network diagram, determining the shortest project duration
c) The path with the least risk
d) Any path with zero float
Answer: b) The longest duration path through the network diagram, determining the shortest project duration

21. Total float is best described as:
a) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date
b) The time between two dependent tasks
c) The buffer added to every task
d) The critical path duration
Answer: a) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date

22. A technique that compresses the schedule by performing activities in parallel that were originally planned sequentially is called:
a) Crashing
b) Fast tracking
c) Resource leveling
d) Critical chain method
Answer: b) Fast tracking

23. Adding extra resources to shorten schedule duration, usually increasing cost, is known as:
a) Fast tracking
b) Crashing
c) Leveling
d) Smoothing
Answer: b) Crashing

24. Which estimating technique uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates?
a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Three-point (PERT) estimating
d) Bottom-up estimating
Answer: c) Three-point (PERT) estimating

25. Resource leveling is typically applied to:
a) Reduce overall project cost
b) Resolve resource over-allocation, often extending the schedule
c) Shorten the critical path without added resources
d) Improve stakeholder satisfaction
Answer: b) Resolve resource over-allocation, often extending the schedule

26. In agile, a chart showing remaining work in a sprint over time is called a:
a) Gantt chart
b) Burndown chart
c) Network diagram
d) S-curve
Answer: b) Burndown chart

Section 4: Cost Management (Q27–34)

27. Earned Value (EV) represents:
a) The budgeted cost of work scheduled
b) The value of work actually completed, expressed in budgeted terms
c) The actual cost incurred
d) The total project budget
Answer: b) The value of work actually completed, expressed in budgeted terms

28. Cost Performance Index (CPI) is calculated as:
a) EV / PV
b) EV / AC
c) AC / EV
d) PV / AC
Answer: b) EV / AC

29. A CPI value of 0.85 indicates that the project is:
a) Ahead of schedule
b) Over budget, earning $0.85 for every $1 spent
c) Under budget
d) On budget exactly
Answer: b) Over budget, earning $0.85 for every $1 spent

30. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is calculated as:
a) EV / PV
b) PV / EV
c) EV / AC
d) AC / PV
Answer: a) EV / PV

31. The Estimate at Completion (EAC) using the formula AC + (BAC – EV) assumes:
a) Future performance will match the original plan
b) Future performance will mirror past cost performance (CPI)
c) Future performance will mirror both cost and schedule performance
d) The project will be re-baselined
Answer: a) Future performance will match the original plan

32. The sum of all budgets for a project, including management reserves, is called:
a) Cost baseline
b) Contingency reserve
c) Total project budget
d) Funding limit reconciliation
Answer: c) Total project budget

33. Contingency reserves are primarily used to address:
a) Unknown-unknown risks
b) Known risks (identified risks within the risk register)
c) Scope changes only
d) Vendor disputes
Answer: b) Known risks (identified risks within the risk register)

34. Management reserves are:
a) Included in the cost baseline
b) Held for unforeseen (unknown-unknown) work within scope and require CCB approval to use
c) Used freely by the project manager without approval
d) The same as contingency reserves
Answer: b) Held for unforeseen (unknown-unknown) work within scope and require CCB approval to use

Section 5: Quality Management (Q35–41)

35. The cost of conformance includes:
a) Costs of rework and warranty claims
b) Costs of prevention and appraisal activities
c) Costs of scrapped material only
d) Legal liability costs
Answer: b) Costs of prevention and appraisal activities

36. Which quality tool visually shows the frequency distribution of a process to identify the most common causes of problems?
a) Fishbone diagram
b) Pareto chart
c) Control chart
d) Scatter diagram
Answer: b) Pareto chart

37. A control chart is primarily used to determine whether:
a) A process is within acceptable statistical control limits
b) Costs are within budget
c) Deliverables meet customer requirements exactly
d) Root causes have been identified
Answer: a) A process is within acceptable statistical control limits

38. The process of inspecting deliverables to verify they meet quality requirements and specifications is called:
a) Plan Quality Management
b) Manage Quality
c) Control Quality
d) Validate Scope
Answer: c) Control Quality

39. A cause-and-effect diagram used to explore all potential causes of a problem is also known as:
a) Pareto chart
b) Ishikawa (fishbone) diagram
c) Control chart
d) Histogram
Answer: b) Ishikawa (fishbone) diagram

40. Which quality principle states that quality should be built into a product rather than inspected in afterward?
a) Gold plating
b) Cost of quality
c) Marginal analysis / prevention over inspection
d) Just-in-time
Answer: c) Marginal analysis / prevention over inspection

41. Manage Quality (formerly Quality Assurance) primarily focuses on:
a) Inspecting the final product
b) Auditing quality requirements and processes to build confidence deliverables will meet standards
c) Approving change requests
d) Estimating cost of quality only
Answer: b) Auditing quality requirements and processes to build confidence deliverables will meet standards

Section 6: Resource Management (Q42–49)

42. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RACI) chart identifies:
a) Who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each activity
b) The reporting hierarchy only
c) The project’s organizational structure
d) Resource costs
Answer: a) Who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each activity

43. In a strong matrix organization, who typically holds more authority over project resources?
a) The functional manager
b) The project manager
c) The team lead
d) The PMO exclusively
Answer: b) The project manager

44. Tuckman’s model of team development includes which stage where conflicts and power struggles emerge?
a) Forming
b) Storming
c) Norming
d) Performing
Answer: b) Storming

45. A conflict resolution technique where the project manager imposes a solution is called:
a) Collaborate/Problem Solve
b) Compromise
c) Force/Direct
d) Withdraw/Avoid
Answer: c) Force/Direct

46. According to Herzberg’s theory, which factors prevent dissatisfaction but do not motivate on their own?
a) Motivators
b) Hygiene factors
c) Esteem needs
d) Self-actualization needs
Answer: b) Hygiene factors

47. A resource histogram is used primarily to show:
a) Cost variance over time
b) Resource allocation across the project timeline
c) Quality defect trends
d) Risk exposure per phase
Answer: b) Resource allocation across the project timeline

48. Servant leadership, emphasized in agile environments, focuses on the leader:
a) Directing all technical decisions
b) Removing impediments and empowering the team
c) Assigning tasks without team input
d) Managing the budget exclusively
Answer: b) Removing impediments and empowering the team

49. When a project manager acquires team members from outside the organization, this is called:
a) Virtual team management
b) Negotiation
c) Team acquisition/procurement of staff
d) Resource leveling
Answer: c) Team acquisition/procurement of staff

Section 7: Communications Management (Q50–55)

50. The communication model element responsible for converting a message into symbols is called:
a) Decoding
b) Encoding
c) Medium
d) Noise
Answer: b) Encoding

51. Which type of communication involves multiple parties actively exchanging information, such as a meeting?
a) Push communication
b) Pull communication
c) Interactive communication
d) Formal written communication
Answer: c) Interactive communication

52. Posting a project report on a shared portal for stakeholders to access at their convenience is an example of:
a) Interactive communication
b) Push communication
c) Pull communication
d) Informal communication
Answer: c) Pull communication

53. The total number of communication channels for a team of 10 people is calculated as:
a) 10 x 9
b) n(n-1)/2 = 45
c) n squared
d) 2n
Answer: b) n(n-1)/2 = 45

54. A communications management plan should primarily define:
a) The project budget
b) Who needs what information, when, and in what format
c) The risk register updates
d) The quality control measurements
Answer: b) Who needs what information, when, and in what format

55. Which factor is most likely to cause a breakdown in communication (referred to as “noise”)?
a) Clear language
b) Cultural differences, jargon, or distractions
c) A well-defined communication plan
d) Active listening
Answer: b) Cultural differences, jargon, or distractions

Section 8: Risk Management (Q56–65)

56. The process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics is called:
a) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
b) Identify Risks
c) Plan Risk Management
d) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: b) Identify Risks

57. Which technique prioritizes risks based on probability and impact using a probability-impact matrix?
a) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
b) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
c) Monte Carlo simulation
d) Sensitivity analysis
Answer: b) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

58. A tornado diagram is commonly used in which process?
a) Identify Risks
b) Plan Risk Responses
c) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
d) Monitor Risks
Answer: c) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

59. Which risk response strategy for a negative risk involves transferring the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as through insurance?
a) Avoid
b) Mitigate
c) Transfer
d) Accept
Answer: c) Transfer

60. Which risk response strategy involves eliminating the threat entirely, often by changing the project plan?
a) Avoid
b) Mitigate
c) Escalate
d) Exploit
Answer: a) Avoid

61. For positive risks (opportunities), the strategy of actively ensuring the opportunity is realized is called:
a) Enhance
b) Exploit
c) Share
d) Accept
Answer: b) Exploit

62. A risk that is deliberately not planned for because its impact is minor is handled through:
a) Active acceptance (with contingency reserve)
b) Passive acceptance
c) Mitigation
d) Transfer
Answer: b) Passive acceptance

63. Risks that cannot be identified in advance and have no planned response are covered by:
a) Contingency reserves
b) Management reserves
c) The risk register
d) The issue log
Answer: b) Management reserves

64. The document that records identified risks, their owners, and planned responses is the:
a) Risk Management Plan
b) Risk Register
c) Risk Breakdown Structure
d) Issue Log
Answer: b) Risk Register

65. In agile projects, risks are often reviewed and reprioritized:
a) Only at project closure
b) Continuously, at each iteration/sprint review
c) Only by the sponsor
d) Once at project initiation
Answer: b) Continuously, at each iteration/sprint review

Section 9: Procurement Management (Q66–72)

66. A contract type where the seller is reimbursed for allowable costs plus a fixed fee is called:
a) Fixed Price (FP)
b) Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
c) Time and Materials (T&M)
d) Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
Answer: b) Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

67. Which contract type places the most cost risk on the seller?
a) Cost Plus Fixed Fee
b) Firm Fixed Price
c) Time and Materials
d) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
Answer: b) Firm Fixed Price

68. A document sent to prospective sellers requesting a detailed proposal on how they will meet requirements and at what cost is called a:
a) Request for Information (RFI)
b) Request for Quotation (RFQ)
c) Request for Proposal (RFP)
d) Invitation for Bid (IFB)
Answer: c) Request for Proposal (RFP)

69. The process of formally completing or closing a project or phase contract with a vendor is called:
a) Conduct Procurements
b) Control Procurements
c) Close Procurements (or contract closure activities within project closure)
d) Plan Procurement Management
Answer: c) Close Procurements (or contract closure activities within project closure)

70. Which procurement document is used to shortlist qualified sellers based on their general capability?
a) Request for Proposal
b) Request for Quotation
c) Request for Information
d) Statement of Work
Answer: c) Request for Information

71. A Statement of Work (SOW) for procurement primarily describes:
a) Payment terms only
b) The work to be performed by the seller in sufficient detail
c) The seller’s financial statements
d) Legal dispute resolution processes
Answer: b) The work to be performed by the seller in sufficient detail

72. In a Time and Materials contract, the buyer’s cost risk is generally:
a) Very low, similar to Fixed Price
b) Higher, since costs can grow if duration/effort is not capped
c) Nonexistent
d) Fixed regardless of hours worked
Answer: b) Higher, since costs can grow if duration/effort is not capped

Section 10: Stakeholder Management (Q73–78)

73. The process of identifying people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project is:
a) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
b) Identify Stakeholders
c) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
d) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Answer: b) Identify Stakeholders

74. A stakeholder classified as “high power, high interest” should generally be:
a) Monitored with minimal effort
b) Kept informed only
c) Managed closely
d) Kept satisfied but not engaged
Answer: c) Managed closely

75. The power/interest grid is a tool used primarily during which process?
a) Identify Stakeholders
b) Control Quality
c) Plan Procurement Management
d) Develop Schedule
Answer: a) Identify Stakeholders

76. A stakeholder who is unaware of the project or its impacts is classified in stakeholder engagement assessment as:
a) Leading
b) Neutral
c) Unaware
d) Resistant
Answer: c) Unaware

77. Which document tracks stakeholder engagement levels and strategies to increase support?
a) Stakeholder Register
b) Stakeholder Engagement Plan
c) Communications Management Plan
d) RACI Chart
Answer: b) Stakeholder Engagement Plan

78. When stakeholder expectations conflict, the project manager’s best first step is typically to:
a) Escalate immediately to the sponsor
b) Facilitate discussion to understand underlying interests and negotiate alignment
c) Ignore the minority stakeholder
d) Change the project scope unilaterally
Answer: b) Facilitate discussion to understand underlying interests and negotiate alignment

Section 11: Agile and Hybrid Approaches (Q79–88)

79. In Scrum, the person responsible for maximizing product value and managing the Product Backlog is the:
a) Scrum Master
b) Product Owner
c) Development Team
d) Project Sponsor
Answer: b) Product Owner

80. The Scrum Master’s primary role is to:
a) Assign tasks to the team daily
b) Serve as a servant leader who removes impediments and coaches the team on Scrum
c) Approve the product backlog
d) Manage the project budget
Answer: b) Serve as a servant leader who removes impediments and coaches the team on Scrum

81. A fixed-length iteration during which a working increment of product is created is called a:
a) Release
b) Sprint
c) Epic
d) Spike
Answer: b) Sprint

82. The daily short meeting where the team synchronizes work and identifies impediments is called:
a) Sprint Review
b) Sprint Retrospective
c) Daily Standup (Daily Scrum)
d) Backlog Refinement
Answer: c) Daily Standup (Daily Scrum)

83. The event at the end of a sprint where the team demonstrates completed work to stakeholders is:
a) Sprint Planning
b) Sprint Review
c) Sprint Retrospective
d) Backlog Grooming
Answer: b) Sprint Review

84. The meeting focused on how the team can improve its process going forward is the:
a) Sprint Review
b) Daily Standup
c) Sprint Retrospective
d) Sprint Planning
Answer: c) Sprint Retrospective

85. In Kanban, limiting the amount of work in progress at each stage is called:
a) Velocity tracking
b) WIP limits
c) Sprint capacity
d) Story pointing
Answer: b) WIP limits

86. A hybrid project approach typically combines:
a) Only predictive methods
b) Only agile methods
c) Elements of predictive and agile approaches tailored to project needs
d) Only waterfall with no iteration
Answer: c) Elements of predictive and agile approaches tailored to project needs

87. Velocity in agile is best defined as:
a) The total project budget consumed
b) The amount of work (e.g., story points) a team completes per sprint on average
c) The number of defects found per sprint
d) The number of stakeholders engaged
Answer: b) The amount of work (e.g., story points) a team completes per sprint on average

88. When should a project team consider a hybrid approach over pure agile?
a) When requirements are highly volatile and need continuous discovery
b) When parts of the project have stable, well-defined requirements while others need iterative discovery
c) When the customer wants zero involvement
d) Never, hybrid approaches are not recommended
Answer: b) When parts of the project have stable, well-defined requirements while others need iterative discovery

Section 12: Business Environment & Professional Responsibility (Q89–94)

89. According to the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, which value requires project managers to make decisions based on the best interest of society, safety, and the environment?
a) Honesty
b) Responsibility
c) Fairness
d) Respect
Answer: b) Responsibility

90. A project manager discovers a personal conflict of interest with a vendor bid. The most ethical action is to:
a) Say nothing since the project is on schedule
b) Disclose the conflict of interest to appropriate stakeholders
c) Award the contract to the vendor anyway
d) Resign from the project without explanation
Answer: b) Disclose the conflict of interest to appropriate stakeholders

91. Which document links project objectives to organizational strategy and ongoing business value?
a) Project Charter
b) Benefits Management Plan
c) Risk Register
d) Scope Statement
Answer: b) Benefits Management Plan

92. Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) refer to:
a) External regulations affecting the project
b) Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to the performing organization
c) Market conditions
d) Legal and compliance frameworks
Answer: b) Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to the performing organization

93. Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) are best described as:
a) Internal templates and lessons learned repositories
b) Conditions not under the immediate control of the project team that influence, constrain, or direct the project
c) The project’s WBS structure
d) The sponsor’s personal preferences only
Answer: b) Conditions not under the immediate control of the project team that influence, constrain, or direct the project

94. A project’s alignment with sustainability, compliance, and social responsibility considerations falls primarily under which ECO domain?
a) People
b) Process
c) Business Environment
d) Technical Performance
Answer: c) Business Environment

Section 13: General Project Management & Process Groups (Q95–100)

95. The five Process Groups defined in traditional project management are:
a) Plan, Do, Check, Act, Review
b) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
c) Concept, Design, Build, Test, Deploy
d) Discover, Define, Develop, Deliver, Debrief
Answer: b) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing

96. A project is best defined as:
a) An ongoing operation with no end date
b) A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
c) A permanent organizational function
d) A routine, repetitive business process
Answer: b) A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

97. A program is best described as:
a) A single small project
b) A group of related projects, subprograms, and activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually
c) An operational department
d) A single deliverable within a project
Answer: b) A group of related projects, subprograms, and activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

98. Portfolio management primarily focuses on:
a) Managing day-to-day project tasks
b) Selecting and prioritizing projects and programs to align with organizational strategy
c) Writing detailed technical specifications
d) Resolving individual team conflicts
Answer: b) Selecting and prioritizing projects and programs to align with organizational strategy

99. Progressive elaboration refers to:
a) Continuously improving and detailing a plan as more information becomes available
b) Finalizing all project details at initiation
c) Skipping planning in favor of execution
d) A one-time estimating technique
Answer: a) Continuously improving and detailing a plan as more information becomes available

100. Which of the following best reflects a core PMBOK principle regarding project management approach?
a) Always use a purely predictive approach regardless of project characteristics
b) Tailor the project management approach based on project context, complexity, and stakeholder needs
c) Avoid stakeholder engagement to reduce scope creep
d) Ignore organizational strategy when planning projects
Answer: b) Tailor the project management approach based on project context, complexity, and stakeholder needs