Section 1: Agile Principles and Mindset
Q1. Which of the following best reflects the agile value of prioritizing “individuals and interactions” over “processes and tools”?

A. Enforcing strict adherence to a defined toolset regardless of team feedback
B. Encouraging open communication and collaboration even when it means adapting the process
C. Replacing all meetings with automated status reports
D. Requiring every interaction to be documented in a formal tool

Correct Answer: B. Encouraging open communication and collaboration even when it means adapting the process

Q2. According to the Agile Manifesto, which is valued more: “working software” or “comprehensive documentation”?

A. Comprehensive documentation is valued more
B. Working software is valued more, though documentation still has value
C. Both are considered equally unimportant
D. Documentation replaces the need for working software

Correct Answer: B. Working software is valued more, though documentation still has value

Q3. Which agile principle emphasizes welcoming changing requirements, even late in development?

A. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage
B. Requirements must be frozen after the first iteration
C. Change requests should always be rejected once a sprint begins
D. Documentation should be updated only at project closure

Correct Answer: A. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage

Q4. The agile principle of “working software as the primary measure of progress” suggests that:

A. Status reports and Gantt charts are the best indicators of progress
B. Delivering functioning, tested increments is the most reliable indicator of progress
C. Progress should be measured only by hours logged
D. Documentation completeness is the primary progress indicator

Correct Answer: B. Delivering functioning, tested increments is the most reliable indicator of progress

Q5. Which best describes the servant leadership mindset in agile environments?

A. The leader commands and controls all team decisions
B. The leader focuses on removing impediments and enabling the team’s success
C. The leader avoids any involvement with the team
D. The leader assigns tasks without team input

Correct Answer: B. The leader focuses on removing impediments and enabling the team’s success

Q6. Self-organizing teams are best described as teams that:

A. Determine how to accomplish their work without being directed by management
B. Require a manager to assign every task
C. Cannot make decisions without external approval
D. Operate with no defined goals

Correct Answer: A. Determine how to accomplish their work without being directed by management

Q7. Sustainable pace in agile development refers to:

A. Working teams as hard as possible until the deadline, then resting
B. Maintaining a consistent, sustainable work rhythm the team can continue indefinitely
C. Requiring mandatory overtime every sprint
D. Ignoring team well-being in favor of speed

Correct Answer: B. Maintaining a consistent, sustainable work rhythm the team can continue indefinitely

Q8. Which of the following best reflects an agile mindset shift from traditional project management?

A. Emphasis on rigid upfront planning with no flexibility
B. Emphasis on iterative delivery, embracing change, and continuous customer collaboration
C. Elimination of all customer involvement after initiation
D. Complete avoidance of planning altogether

Correct Answer: B. Emphasis on iterative delivery, embracing change, and continuous customer collaboration

Q9. The agile principle “business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project” emphasizes:

A. Ongoing collaboration between business stakeholders and the delivery team
B. Business people should have no involvement after requirements gathering
C. Developers should work in isolation from stakeholders
D. Daily meetings are optional and rarely useful

Correct Answer: A. Ongoing collaboration between business stakeholders and the delivery team

Q10. Simplicity, as an agile principle, is defined as:

A. The art of maximizing the amount of work not done
B. Doing the maximum amount of work possible regardless of value
C. Avoiding all planning and documentation
D. Reducing the team size to one person

Correct Answer: A. The art of maximizing the amount of work not done

Q11. Which best explains why agile teams hold regular retrospectives, per the Agile Manifesto’s principles?

A. To reflect on how to become more effective and adjust behavior accordingly
B. To assign blame for missed deadlines
C. To replace the need for sprint reviews
D. To finalize the project budget

Correct Answer: A. To reflect on how to become more effective and adjust behavior accordingly

Q12. The Lean thinking concept of “eliminating waste,” incorporated into agile approaches, focuses on:

A. Removing activities that do not add value to the customer
B. Reducing team size regardless of workload
C. Eliminating all documentation regardless of need
D. Minimizing customer interaction

Correct Answer: A. Removing activities that do not add value to the customer

Section 2: Value-Driven Delivery
Q13. Value-driven delivery in agile primarily focuses on:

A. Delivering the highest-priority, highest-value features first
B. Delivering features in the order they were requested regardless of value
C. Completing all low-value work before high-value work
D. Delivering only at the end of the project

Correct Answer: A. Delivering the highest-priority, highest-value features first

Q14. Which technique is commonly used to prioritize backlog items based on value, effort, and risk?

A. MoSCoW prioritization
B. Critical path method
C. Earned value management only
D. Resource leveling

Correct Answer: A. MoSCoW prioritization

Q15. A Minimum Viable Product (MVP) is best described as:

A. The final, fully-featured version of a product
B. The smallest set of features needed to test a hypothesis and gather user feedback
C. A prototype with no real functionality
D. A product with every possible feature included from day one

Correct Answer: B. The smallest set of features needed to test a hypothesis and gather user feedback

Q16. Which metric measures the rate at which a team completes work over successive iterations?

A. Velocity
B. Earned Value
C. Cost Performance Index
D. Net Present Value

Correct Answer: A. Velocity

Q17. Relative sizing, such as story points, is used primarily to:

A. Estimate effort or complexity relative to other items rather than in absolute time units
B. Calculate exact hours required for each task
C. Determine the project’s total budget
D. Replace the need for a product backlog

Correct Answer: A. Estimate effort or complexity relative to other items rather than in absolute time units

Q18. Which agile estimating technique uses a group consensus approach with cards showing numeric values?

A. Planning Poker
B. Monte Carlo simulation
C. Three-point estimating
D. Analogous estimating

Correct Answer: A. Planning Poker

Q19. Incremental delivery of value allows organizations to:

A. Wait until the entire product is complete to realize any benefit
B. Realize business value earlier and gather feedback throughout development
C. Avoid all customer feedback
D. Eliminate the need for prioritization

Correct Answer: B. Realize business value earlier and gather feedback throughout development

Q20. Return on Investment (ROI) and Net Present Value (NPV) are financial tools used in agile value-driven delivery to:

A. Help prioritize features and projects based on expected financial benefit
B. Calculate team velocity
C. Determine sprint length
D. Assign story points

Correct Answer: A. Help prioritize features and projects based on expected financial benefit

Q21. A Kanban board’s primary purpose in value-driven delivery is to:

A. Visualize workflow and limit work in progress to improve flow
B. Replace the product backlog entirely
C. Track only completed work with no visibility into progress
D. Eliminate the need for prioritization

Correct Answer: A. Visualize workflow and limit work in progress to improve flow

Q22. Which concept describes prioritizing work to maximize the value delivered per unit of effort or time?

A. Value-based prioritization
B. Gold plating
C. Scope creep
D. Resource smoothing

Correct Answer: A. Value-based prioritization

Q23. The Kano model helps teams classify features based on:

A. Customer satisfaction impact—basic, performance, and delighter/exciter features
B. Team velocity trends
C. Contract type selection
D. Risk probability and impact

Correct Answer: A. Customer satisfaction impact—basic, performance, and delighter/exciter features

Q24. Which of the following best supports frequent value delivery and validated learning, per Lean Startup principles referenced in the Agile Practice Guide?

A. Build-Measure-Learn feedback loops
B. Fixed, upfront requirements with no iteration
C. Waiting until the end of the project to gather feedback
D. Avoiding experimentation to reduce risk

Correct Answer: A. Build-Measure-Learn feedback loops

Q25. A product backlog is best described as:

A. A prioritized, evolving list of features, requirements, and work items for the product
B. A fixed list that cannot be changed once created
C. A document used only for sprint retrospectives
D. A financial ledger for the project

Correct Answer: A. A prioritized, evolving list of features, requirements, and work items for the product

Q26. Definition of Ready (DoR) helps agile teams by:

A. Establishing criteria a backlog item must meet before being pulled into an iteration
B. Defining when a project should be closed
C. Replacing the need for acceptance criteria
D. Determining team velocity

Correct Answer: A. Establishing criteria a backlog item must meet before being pulled into an iteration

Section 3: Stakeholder Engagement
Q27. Effective stakeholder engagement in agile environments relies heavily on:

A. Frequent, transparent communication and active collaboration throughout the project
B. Limiting stakeholder involvement to project kickoff only
C. Avoiding stakeholder feedback to maintain team autonomy
D. Communicating only through formal written reports

Correct Answer: A. Frequent, transparent communication and active collaboration throughout the project

Q28. The Sprint Review ceremony primarily supports stakeholder engagement by:

A. Allowing stakeholders to inspect the increment and provide feedback
B. Replacing the need for a Product Owner
C. Finalizing the project budget
D. Assigning blame for missed commitments

Correct Answer: A. Allowing stakeholders to inspect the increment and provide feedback

Q29. Which role is primarily responsible for representing stakeholder and customer interests on a Scrum team?

A. Scrum Master
B. Product Owner
C. Development Team member
D. Project Sponsor exclusively

Correct Answer: B. Product Owner

Q30. Active listening as a facilitation technique helps agile practitioners primarily by:

A. Ensuring stakeholders feel heard and clarifying true needs and concerns
B. Reducing the need for stakeholder meetings
C. Allowing the facilitator to dominate the conversation
D. Eliminating the need for follow-up questions

Correct Answer: A. Ensuring stakeholders feel heard and clarifying true needs and concerns

Q31. Wireframes and prototypes are useful stakeholder engagement tools because they:

A. Provide a tangible representation of requirements for early feedback
B. Replace the need for a product backlog
C. Eliminate the need for stakeholder collaboration
D. Are only useful after the product is fully built

Correct Answer: A. Provide a tangible representation of requirements for early feedback

Q32. Design thinking, as referenced in the Agile Practice Guide, primarily helps teams:

A. Deeply understand user needs through empathy-driven exploration before building solutions
B. Skip requirements gathering entirely
C. Focus solely on technical feasibility
D. Avoid stakeholder collaboration

Correct Answer: A. Deeply understand user needs through empathy-driven exploration before building solutions

Q33. When stakeholders provide conflicting feedback on priorities, the Product Owner should:

A. Ignore the feedback and proceed with the original plan
B. Facilitate discussion to align on value and update backlog priorities accordingly
C. Automatically favor the loudest stakeholder
D. Escalate every disagreement without attempting resolution first

Correct Answer: B. Facilitate discussion to align on value and update backlog priorities accordingly

Q34. A stakeholder engagement technique where representatives of the customer are embedded within the team is called:

A. An on-site customer or customer proxy
B. A steering committee
C. A change control board
D. A governance board

Correct Answer: A. An on-site customer or customer proxy

Q35. Radiating information, such as through task boards, supports stakeholder engagement by:

A. Making project status and progress visible and transparent to all
B. Restricting information to the project manager only
C. Replacing the need for any stakeholder communication
D. Hiding issues from stakeholders until resolved

Correct Answer: A. Making project status and progress visible and transparent to all

Q36. Which technique helps validate that a delivered increment truly meets stakeholder needs?

A. User acceptance testing and stakeholder demonstration
B. Skipping testing to save time
C. Relying solely on the developer’s judgment
D. Waiting until final project closure to validate

Correct Answer: A. User acceptance testing and stakeholder demonstration

Section 4: Team Performance
Q37. According to Tuckman’s model, which stage is characterized by conflict as team members establish roles and norms?

A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

Correct Answer: B. Storming

Q38. A cross-functional agile team is best described as a team that:

A. Has all the skills necessary to deliver a product increment without external dependencies
B. Consists only of developers with no other roles
C. Requires approval from multiple departments for every task
D. Cannot include testers or designers

Correct Answer: A. Has all the skills necessary to deliver a product increment without external dependencies

Q39. Psychological safety within a team refers to:

A. A shared belief that team members can take risks and voice concerns without fear of punishment
B. The physical safety of the office environment
C. A formal legal agreement between team members
D. The absence of any disagreement within the team

Correct Answer: A. A shared belief that team members can take risks and voice concerns without fear of punishment

Q40. The Scrum Master’s primary responsibility toward the team is to:

A. Assign daily tasks to each team member
B. Coach the team, remove impediments, and facilitate Scrum events
C. Approve the product backlog priorities
D. Set the project budget

Correct Answer: B. Coach the team, remove impediments, and facilitate Scrum events

Q41. Which technique helps distributed or virtual agile teams maintain effective collaboration?

A. Establishing clear communication norms, overlapping hours, and collaboration tools
B. Avoiding all synchronous communication
C. Eliminating daily standups for remote teams
D. Assuming no additional coordination is needed

Correct Answer: A. Establishing clear communication norms, overlapping hours, and collaboration tools

Q42. A team’s velocity should primarily be used to:

A. Forecast future capacity and sprint planning, not to compare across different teams
B. Rank team members by individual performance
C. Set punitive targets for underperforming teams
D. Compare unrelated teams’ performance directly

Correct Answer: A. Forecast future capacity and sprint planning, not to compare across different teams

Q43. Which conflict resolution approach seeks a win-win outcome by exploring underlying interests of all parties?

A. Collaborating/Problem Solving
B. Avoiding
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing

Correct Answer: A. Collaborating/Problem Solving

Q44. Team empowerment and decentralized decision-making in agile primarily aim to:

A. Increase speed and quality of decisions by involving those closest to the work
B. Remove all decision-making authority from the team
C. Centralize every decision with senior management
D. Eliminate the need for a Scrum Master or coach

Correct Answer: A. Increase speed and quality of decisions by involving those closest to the work

Q45. Which practice helps build shared understanding and collective ownership of code or work products?

A. Pair programming or collective code ownership
B. Strict individual ownership with no collaboration
C. Isolating team members to specialize narrowly
D. Avoiding code reviews

Correct Answer: A. Pair programming or collective code ownership

Q46. Emotional intelligence contributes to team performance primarily by helping team members:

A. Recognize and manage their own and others’ emotions to improve collaboration
B. Avoid all emotional expression
C. Suppress conflict indefinitely
D. Focus solely on technical skills

Correct Answer: A. Recognize and manage their own and others’ emotions to improve collaboration

Q47. A team consistently missing sprint commitments should first:

A. Inspect root causes, such as over-commitment or impediments, during the retrospective
B. Immediately replace team members
C. Increase sprint length without analysis
D. Ignore the pattern if the sponsor hasn’t complained

Correct Answer: A. Inspect root causes, such as over-commitment or impediments, during the retrospective

Q48. Coaching, as opposed to directing, is emphasized in agile leadership because it:

A. Builds team capability and self-sufficiency over time
B. Removes the team’s autonomy
C. Requires the leader to make every decision
D. Discourages team learning

Correct Answer: A. Builds team capability and self-sufficiency over time

Section 5: Adaptive Planning
Q49. Adaptive planning in agile environments is best characterized by:

A. Planning in detail once at the start and never revisiting it
B. Continuously refining and adjusting plans based on new information and feedback
C. Avoiding planning altogether
D. Planning only at the executive level

Correct Answer: B. Continuously refining and adjusting plans based on new information and feedback

Q50. Release planning in agile typically focuses on:

A. Determining which features and stories will be delivered in an upcoming release, at a high level
B. Detailing every task down to the hour for the entire project
C. Replacing the need for iteration planning
D. Occurring only once, at project closure

Correct Answer: A. Determining which features and stories will be delivered in an upcoming release, at a high level

Q51. Iteration or sprint planning primarily focuses on:

A. Determining which backlog items the team will commit to for the upcoming iteration
B. Setting the overall project budget
C. Finalizing the product vision
D. Selecting the development methodology

Correct Answer: A. Determining which backlog items the team will commit to for the upcoming iteration

Q52. Rolling wave planning, applied in agile/hybrid contexts, involves:

A. Planning near-term work in detail while leaving future work at a higher level of abstraction
B. Planning the entire project in exhaustive detail upfront
C. Avoiding any planning until execution begins
D. Planning is completed once and never revisited

Correct Answer: A. Planning near-term work in detail while leaving future work at a higher level of abstraction

Q53. A product roadmap is best described as:

A. A high-level, strategic view of product direction and major milestones over time
B. A detailed hour-by-hour schedule
C. A financial ledger of project expenses
D. A list of individual task assignments

Correct Answer: A. A high-level, strategic view of product direction and major milestones over time

Q54. Timeboxing in agile planning refers to:

A. Allocating a fixed, maximum period of time for an activity or iteration
B. Allowing activities to run indefinitely until complete
C. Estimating cost rather than time
D. Replacing the need for a backlog

Correct Answer: A. Allocating a fixed, maximum period of time for an activity or iteration

Q55. Which chart shows the amount of work remaining in a sprint or release over time?

A. Burndown chart
B. Pareto chart
C. Control chart
D. Fishbone diagram

Correct Answer: A. Burndown chart

Q56. A burnup chart differs from a burndown chart in that it shows:

A. Work completed over time, along with scope changes, rather than work remaining
B. Only historical cost data
C. Team member availability only
D. Risk exposure trends

Correct Answer: A. Work completed over time, along with scope changes, rather than work remaining

Q57. Progressive elaboration in adaptive planning means:

A. Continuously detailing plans as more information becomes available
B. Committing to complete detail before any work begins
C. Avoiding any changes to the plan once set
D. Skipping planning in early iterations

Correct Answer: A. Continuously detailing plans as more information becomes available

Q58. A key benefit of adaptive planning over predictive planning in high-uncertainty environments is:

A. Reduced flexibility to respond to change
B. Greater ability to respond to changing requirements and emerging information
C. Guaranteed fixed scope and cost
D. Elimination of the need for stakeholder feedback

Correct Answer: B. Greater ability to respond to changing requirements and emerging information

Q59. Capacity-based planning for a sprint considers:

A. Team members’ available hours/days, accounting for holidays, meetings, and other commitments
B. Only the total project budget
C. Only historical velocity with no adjustment for availability
D. The sponsor’s personal schedule

Correct Answer: A. Team members’ available hours/days, accounting for holidays, meetings, and other commitments

Q60. Which technique helps break down large backlog items or epics into smaller, more manageable stories?

A. Story decomposition/splitting
B. Earned value analysis
C. Critical path method
D. Resource leveling

Correct Answer: A. Story decomposition/splitting

Section 6: Problem Detection and Resolution
Q61. An impediment or blocker in agile is best described as:

A. Anything that slows down or prevents the team from achieving its goals
B. A feature request from the customer
C. A completed task
D. A scheduled team celebration

Correct Answer: A. Anything that slows down or prevents the team from achieving its goals

Q62. The Daily Standup primarily helps detect problems by:

A. Surfacing impediments and progress in a short, frequent check-in
B. Replacing the need for a retrospective
C. Assigning blame for missed work
D. Finalizing the sprint backlog

Correct Answer: A. Surfacing impediments and progress in a short, frequent check-in

Q63. A cumulative flow diagram helps teams detect problems by:

A. Visualizing work item flow across stages to reveal bottlenecks
B. Tracking only financial metrics
C. Replacing the need for a Kanban board
D. Measuring stakeholder satisfaction only

Correct Answer: A. Visualizing work item flow across stages to reveal bottlenecks

Q64. Root cause analysis techniques, such as the “5 Whys,” are used to:

A. Identify the underlying cause of a problem rather than just its symptoms
B. Assign blame to a specific team member
C. Avoid addressing problems directly
D. Replace the need for a retrospective

Correct Answer: A. Identify the underlying cause of a problem rather than just its symptoms

Q65. When a team identifies a risk that could impact the sprint goal, the best immediate action is to:

A. Ignore it if it hasn’t happened yet
B. Raise it during the daily standup and develop a response plan
C. Wait until the sprint review to mention it
D. Escalate directly to the sponsor without team discussion

Correct Answer: B. Raise it during the daily standup and develop a response plan

Q66. Escalation of an impediment beyond the team’s control should generally be handled by:

A. The Scrum Master or agile coach, working to remove the obstacle
B. Ignoring it and hoping it resolves itself
C. The most junior team member
D. A random team vote each week

Correct Answer: A. The Scrum Master or agile coach, working to remove the obstacle

Q67. A control chart in agile/Kanban environments is used to:

A. Monitor cycle time variability and identify process control issues
B. Track only the project budget
C. Replace the need for a backlog
D. Determine team member salaries

Correct Answer: A. Monitor cycle time variability and identify process control issues

Q68. Which practice helps detect quality problems early through continuous verification of code changes?

A. Continuous Integration and automated testing
B. Testing only at the end of the project
C. Skipping code reviews to save time
D. Manual testing performed once per year

Correct Answer: A. Continuous Integration and automated testing

Q69. When technical debt accumulates on a project, the team should:

A. Ignore it indefinitely to focus solely on new features
B. Periodically allocate time to address and reduce technical debt
C. Add it as a permanent fixture with no plan to resolve it
D. Blame the Product Owner exclusively

Correct Answer: B. Periodically allocate time to address and reduce technical debt

Q70. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is a technique used to:

A. Proactively identify potential failure points and their impact before they occur
B. Calculate team velocity
C. Replace the sprint retrospective
D. Determine contract type

Correct Answer: A. Proactively identify potential failure points and their impact before they occur

Section 7: Continuous Improvement – Product, Process, People
Q71. The Sprint Retrospective is primarily used to:

A. Reflect on the team’s process and identify actionable improvements
B. Demonstrate the product increment to stakeholders
C. Plan the next sprint’s backlog
D. Finalize the project budget

Correct Answer: A. Reflect on the team’s process and identify actionable improvements

Q72. Kaizen, a Lean concept incorporated into agile continuous improvement, refers to:

A. Continuous, incremental improvement involving all team members
B. A one-time major overhaul of processes
C. Avoiding change to maintain stability
D. A financial reporting technique

Correct Answer: A. Continuous, incremental improvement involving all team members

Q73. Process tailoring for continuous improvement should be based primarily on:

A. Data and team feedback about what is and isn’t working
B. Personal preference of a single stakeholder
C. Copying another team’s process exactly, regardless of context
D. Avoiding any changes once a process is established

Correct Answer: A. Data and team feedback about what is and isn’t working

Q74. Which practice supports continuous improvement of individual and team skills?

A. Regular training, mentoring, and knowledge sharing
B. Restricting learning opportunities to save time
C. Avoiding skill development to focus solely on delivery
D. Limiting knowledge sharing to senior staff only

Correct Answer: A. Regular training, mentoring, and knowledge sharing

Q75. A “kaizen event” or improvement workshop is typically used to:

A. Focus intensive, short-term effort on solving a specific process problem
B. Replace the need for ongoing retrospectives
C. Assign blame for past failures
D. Finalize the product roadmap

Correct Answer: A. Focus intensive, short-term effort on solving a specific process problem

Q76. Which of the following best describes continuous improvement of the product itself?

A. Iteratively refining features based on user feedback and changing needs
B. Freezing the product scope after the first release
C. Ignoring user feedback to maintain consistency
D. Avoiding any updates after initial launch

Correct Answer: A. Iteratively refining features based on user feedback and changing needs

Q77. Value stream mapping is a Lean technique used to:

A. Visualize the flow of work and identify waste or non-value-added steps
B. Calculate team velocity
C. Replace the product backlog
D. Assign story points

Correct Answer: A. Visualize the flow of work and identify waste or non-value-added steps

Q78. Which retrospective format technique encourages the team to identify what to Start, Stop, and Continue doing?

A. Start-Stop-Continue
B. SWOT analysis
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Force field analysis

Correct Answer: A. Start-Stop-Continue

Q79. Continuous improvement of people or team members is best supported by:

A. Fostering a growth mindset and providing opportunities for feedback and development
B. Avoiding performance feedback entirely
C. Focusing solely on individual output metrics
D. Discouraging cross-training

Correct Answer: A. Fostering a growth mindset and providing opportunities for feedback and development

Q80. Action items from a retrospective should be:

A. Specific, assigned, and tracked to ensure follow-through
B. Left vague with no ownership
C. Discarded if not completed within the same sprint
D. Discussed only, with no tracking needed

Correct Answer: A. Specific, assigned, and tracked to ensure follow-through

Section 8: Agile Frameworks and Methods
Q81. Scrum defines which three primary roles?

A. Product Owner, Scrum Master, Developers
B. Project Manager, Business Analyst, Tester
C. Sponsor, Stakeholder, Team Lead
D. Coach, Facilitator, Client

Correct Answer: A. Product Owner, Scrum Master, Developers

Q82. In Extreme Programming (XP), the practice of two developers working together at one workstation is called:

A. Pair programming
B. Test-driven development
C. Continuous Integration
D. Collective code ownership

Correct Answer: A. Pair programming

Q83. Test-Driven Development (TDD) involves:

A. Writing automated tests before writing the code that fulfills them
B. Writing all code first, then testing at the very end
C. Skipping testing to increase speed
D. Manual testing exclusively

Correct Answer: A. Writing automated tests before writing the code that fulfills them

Q84. Kanban, as a method, is distinguished from Scrum primarily by:

A. Continuous flow with WIP limits rather than fixed-length iterations
B. Requiring fixed two-week sprints
C. Prohibiting the use of a backlog
D. Eliminating the need for a visual board

Correct Answer: A. Continuous flow with WIP limits rather than fixed-length iterations

Q85. Lean software development draws heavily from which core principle?

A. Eliminating waste and optimizing the whole value stream
B. Maximizing documentation at every step
C. Fixed, unchangeable requirements
D. Individual specialization over cross-functional teams

Correct Answer: A. Eliminating waste and optimizing the whole value stream

Q86. DSDM (Dynamic Systems Development Method) emphasizes which key principle?

A. Fitness for business purpose and fixing time, cost, and quality while varying features
B. Fixing scope while allowing time and cost to vary freely
C. Avoiding stakeholder involvement
D. Eliminating iterative delivery

Correct Answer: A. Fitness for business purpose and fixing time, cost, and quality while varying features

Q87. Crystal methodologies primarily emphasize:

A. Tailoring the framework’s rigor based on team size and project criticality
B. A single fixed process for all project sizes
C. Eliminating communication between team members
D. Avoiding any framework structure whatsoever

Correct Answer: A. Tailoring the framework’s rigor based on team size and project criticality

Q88. Feature-Driven Development (FDD) primarily organizes work around:

A. Building and designing by feature, in short iterations
B. Fixed-length sprints with no feature focus
C. A single large release with no incremental delivery
D. Financial metrics only

Correct Answer: A. Building and designing by feature, in short iterations

Q89. The Cynefin framework helps teams determine an appropriate approach by classifying problems into domains such as:

A. Clear, Complicated, Complex, and Chaotic
B. Simple, Medium, Hard, Impossible
C. Fixed, Variable, Static, Dynamic
D. Predictive, Agile, Hybrid, Waterfall

Correct Answer: A. Clear, Complicated, Complex, and Chaotic

Q90. Which practice from Extreme Programming supports maintaining code quality through frequent small releases and integration?

A. Continuous Integration
B. Fixed-price contracting
C. Waterfall sequencing
D. Annual releases

Correct Answer: A. Continuous Integration

Q91. A Kanban board’s columns typically represent:

A. The stages of the workflow a work item passes through
B. Team member names only
C. The project’s budget categories
D. Risk severity levels

Correct Answer: A. The stages of the workflow a work item passes through

Q92. Which agile framework relies on fixed-length Sprints, a Sprint Backlog, and specific events including Sprint Planning, Daily Scrum, Sprint Review, and Sprint Retrospective?

A. Scrum
B. Kanban
C. Lean Startup
D. DSDM exclusively

Correct Answer: A. Scrum

Section 9: Scaling, Enterprise Agility, and Emerging Practices
Q93. Scaling agile practices across multiple teams working on the same product typically requires:

A. Additional coordination mechanisms, such as Scrum of Scrums or a scaled framework
B. Ignoring dependencies between teams
C. Reverting entirely to a predictive approach
D. Eliminating the product backlog

Correct Answer: A. Additional coordination mechanisms, such as Scrum of Scrums or a scaled framework

Q94. Scrum of Scrums is a technique used to:

A. Coordinate and synchronize work across multiple Scrum teams working on a related product
B. Replace the Daily Scrum entirely
C. Manage a single team’s backlog
D. Determine individual salaries

Correct Answer: A. Coordinate and synchronize work across multiple Scrum teams working on a related product

Q95. Enterprise agility, as an extension of team-level agility, focuses on:

A. Applying agile principles and value-driven thinking across leadership, operating models, and organizational culture
B. Restricting agile practices to individual software teams only
C. Eliminating the need for organizational strategy
D. Applying agile only to IT departments

Correct Answer: A. Applying agile principles and value-driven thinking across leadership, operating models, and organizational culture

Q96. Which factor should be considered when tailoring an agile approach for a large, distributed program?

A. Team dependencies, communication cadence, and integration points across teams
B. Ignoring any coordination needs between teams
C. Applying identical sprint lengths regardless of context
D. Avoiding any scaling framework consideration

Correct Answer: A. Team dependencies, communication cadence, and integration points across teams

Q97. The integration of AI-enabled tools into agile work, as referenced in the updated Agile Practice Guide, is intended primarily to:

A. Augment team capabilities, such as automating repetitive tasks and supporting decision-making
B. Fully replace the need for a Product Owner or team collaboration
C. Eliminate the need for retrospectives
D. Remove all human judgment from planning

Correct Answer: A. Augment team capabilities, such as automating repetitive tasks and supporting decision-making

Q98. Sustainability considerations in modern agile practice, as emphasized in current guidance, primarily involve:

A. Balancing environmental, social, and economic impacts alongside delivery goals
B. Ignoring long-term impacts in favor of short-term delivery speed
C. Focusing solely on financial return with no other considerations
D. Avoiding any consideration of team well-being

Correct Answer: A. Balancing environmental, social, and economic impacts alongside delivery goals

Q99. When selecting a life cycle approach—predictive, iterative, incremental, agile, or hybrid—for a large program, the decision should be based primarily on:

A. The nature of the work, requirement volatility, and risk across different parts of the program
B. A single fixed framework applied uniformly regardless of context
C. The preference of a single stakeholder with no other input
D. Historical tradition alone, regardless of current needs

Correct Answer: A. The nature of the work, requirement volatility, and risk across different parts of the program

Q100. A key theme across the PMI-ACP Exam Content Outline and the Agile Practice Guide is that agility is best achieved by:

A. Rigidly following a single named framework regardless of context
B. Adopting an agile mindset and tailoring practices, tools, and frameworks to fit the specific context
C. Avoiding all structure or process entirely
D. Applying agile only to software development projects

Correct Answer: B. Adopting an agile mindset and tailoring practices, tools, and frameworks to fit the specific context