Section 1: Agile Principles and Mindset (Q1–12)

1. The Agile Manifesto values “customer collaboration” over which of the following?
a) Contract negotiation
b) Working software
c) Individuals and interactions
d) Responding to change
Answer: a) Contract negotiation

2. Which agile principle states that the best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from:
a) Self-organizing teams
b) A centralized architecture review board
c) The project sponsor alone
d) External consultants only
Answer: a) Self-organizing teams

3. An agile mindset is best described as a way of thinking that values:
a) Predictability and rigid control above all else
b) Adaptability, collaboration, and continuous learning
c) Avoiding customer involvement
d) Fixed long-term plans with no revision
Answer: b) Adaptability, collaboration, and continuous learning

4. Which statement best reflects the agile principle regarding project teams and stakeholders trusting one another?
a) Build projects around motivated individuals, giving them the environment, support, and trust to get the job done
b) Assign tasks without giving teams any autonomy
c) Micromanage every team decision to reduce risk
d) Avoid providing teams with the support they need
Answer: a) Build projects around motivated individuals, giving them the environment, support, and trust to get the job done

5. “Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility” is an agile principle that emphasizes:
a) Maintaining high-quality craftsmanship supports the team’s long-term ability to respond to change
b) Speed should always be prioritized over quality
c) Design decisions should be made once and never revisited
d) Technical excellence is irrelevant to agility
Answer: a) Maintaining high-quality craftsmanship supports the team’s long-term ability to respond to change

6. The agile principle regarding face-to-face conversation suggests it is:
a) The most efficient and effective method of conveying information within a team
b) Never necessary in a distributed team
c) Less effective than written documentation
d) Only useful for social conversations, not work
Answer: a) The most efficient and effective method of conveying information within a team

7. According to agile principles, project teams should deliver working software:
a) Only once, at the very end of the project
b) Frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference for shorter timescales
c) Only after all documentation is finalized
d) At random intervals with no defined cadence
Answer: b) Frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference for shorter timescales

8. Which best captures the difference between an agile mindset and simply following an agile framework’s mechanics?
a) A mindset reflects internalized values and principles, while following mechanics alone may miss the underlying intent
b) There is no difference; frameworks and mindset are identical
c) Mindset applies only to leadership, not team members
d) Mechanics are more important than mindset for achieving agility
Answer: a) A mindset reflects internalized values and principles, while following mechanics alone may miss the underlying intent

9. The Agile Practice Guide describes a continuum of project life cycles ranging from:
a) Predictive to agile, with iterative, incremental, and hybrid approaches in between
b) Only Scrum and Kanban
c) Only fixed-price and time-and-materials contracts
d) Only software development approaches
Answer: a) Predictive to agile, with iterative, incremental, and hybrid approaches in between

10. Which of the following best reflects “responding to change over following a plan”?
a) Adjusting priorities and plans as new information emerges, rather than rigidly adhering to the original plan
b) Refusing to consider any change once the plan is approved
c) Avoiding planning altogether
d) Changing the plan without informing stakeholders
Answer: a) Adjusting priorities and plans as new information emerges, rather than rigidly adhering to the original plan

11. An agile coach helping an organization shift its mindset would primarily focus on:
a) Enforcing a specific tool regardless of team needs
b) Modeling agile values and helping teams and leaders internalize principles, not just processes
c) Assigning tasks to team members directly
d) Avoiding any organizational culture discussions
Answer: b) Modeling agile values and helping teams and leaders internalize principles, not just processes

12. Which of the following is NOT one of the four values in the Agile Manifesto?
a) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
b) Detailed upfront planning over adaptive planning
c) Working software over comprehensive documentation
d) Responding to change over following a plan
Answer: b) Detailed upfront planning over adaptive planning

Section 2: Value-Driven Delivery (Q13–26)

13. Weighted Shortest Job First (WSJF) is a prioritization technique that:
a) Prioritizes items by dividing the cost of delay by job size/duration
b) Prioritizes items strictly by the order they were requested
c) Ignores cost of delay entirely
d) Applies only to fixed-price contracts
Answer: a) Prioritizes items by dividing the cost of delay by job size/duration

14. Cost of Delay in agile value-driven delivery represents:
a) The economic impact of not delivering a feature or capability sooner
b) The total project budget
c) The cost of team training
d) The cost of procurement contracts only
Answer: a) The economic impact of not delivering a feature or capability sooner

15. A spike, in agile terminology, is best described as:
a) A time-boxed research or investigation activity to reduce uncertainty
b) A sudden increase in team velocity
c) A type of user story focused only on bugs
d) A financial metric used in earned value analysis
Answer: a) A time-boxed research or investigation activity to reduce uncertainty

16. Which of the following best describes “value” in agile value-driven delivery?
a) The benefit or worth a deliverable provides to the customer or business
b) The total number of story points completed regardless of usefulness
c) The number of hours logged by the team
d) The size of the product backlog
Answer: a) The benefit or worth a deliverable provides to the customer or business

17. INVEST is an acronym used to evaluate the quality of:
a) User stories (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable)
b) Sprint retrospectives
c) Risk registers
d) Contract types
Answer: a) User stories (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable)

18. Which technique helps teams decompose a large, high-level requirement (epic) while preserving a focus on delivering thin slices of value?
a) Vertical slicing
b) Horizontal slicing by technical layer only
c) Ignoring decomposition entirely
d) Waiting until the end of the release to break down epics
Answer: a) Vertical slicing

19. A feature that customers do not explicitly request but that delights them when present, per the Kano model, is called:
a) An exciter/delighter
b) A basic/must-be feature
c) A performance feature
d) An indifferent feature
Answer: a) An exciter/delighter

20. In agile contracting, a technique that allows the customer to change scope in exchange for reducing an equivalent amount of remaining scope is called:
a) Money for Nothing, Change for Free
b) Fixed Price, Fixed Scope
c) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
d) Firm Fixed Price with no flexibility
Answer: a) Money for Nothing, Change for Free

21. Which of the following best supports validated learning in value-driven delivery?
a) Releasing small increments and measuring actual customer response
b) Building the entire product before any customer exposure
c) Relying solely on internal assumptions with no market testing
d) Avoiding metrics entirely
Answer: a) Releasing small increments and measuring actual customer response

22. Story mapping is a technique used to:
a) Visually organize user stories by user activity and priority to build a shared understanding of the product
b) Replace the need for a product backlog entirely
c) Calculate exact story point values
d) Track only defects
Answer: a) Visually organize user stories by user activity and priority to build a shared understanding of the product

23. Which of the following best represents “prioritizing by risk” in value-driven delivery?
a) Addressing high-risk or high-uncertainty items earlier to reduce overall project risk
b) Always deferring risky items until the very end
c) Ignoring risk in favor of stakeholder preference alone
d) Assigning risk assessment only to the Scrum Master
Answer: a) Addressing high-risk or high-uncertainty items earlier to reduce overall project risk

24. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) in value-driven decision-making refers to:
a) The complete cost of a product or feature over its entire lifecycle, not just development cost
b) Only the initial development cost
c) Only the marketing budget
d) Only the cost of the sprint in which it was built
Answer: a) The complete cost of a product or feature over its entire lifecycle, not just development cost

25. Which best explains why agile teams favor small batch sizes for delivering value?
a) Small batches reduce risk, enable faster feedback, and improve flow
b) Small batches always take longer to deliver overall value
c) Small batches eliminate the need for prioritization
d) Small batches are only relevant to manufacturing, not software
Answer: a) Small batches reduce risk, enable faster feedback, and improve flow

26. A Product Owner deciding between two features with similar effort should generally prioritize the one that:
a) Delivers greater business value or addresses higher risk/uncertainty
b) Was requested first, regardless of value
c) Is technically easiest, regardless of value
d) The development team personally prefers
Answer: a) Delivers greater business value or addresses higher risk/uncertainty

Section 3: Stakeholder Engagement (Q27–36)

27. A key difference between agile and traditional stakeholder engagement is that agile approaches emphasize:
a) Continuous, frequent engagement throughout delivery rather than only at defined milestones
b) Engaging stakeholders only during initiation and closure
c) Avoiding stakeholder feedback until the product is finished
d) Formal sign-off as the only form of engagement
Answer: a) Continuous, frequent engagement throughout delivery rather than only at defined milestones

28. Which technique is commonly used to capture and align expectations between the team and stakeholders around what “done” means for the product?
a) Definition of Done
b) Earned value management
c) Risk breakdown structure
d) Resource calendar
Answer: a) Definition of Done

29. A stakeholder map or influence/interest grid helps agile teams primarily by:
a) Identifying which stakeholders need more frequent or higher-touch engagement
b) Assigning story points to backlog items
c) Determining sprint length
d) Calculating velocity
Answer: a) Identifying which stakeholders need more frequent or higher-touch engagement

30. Facilitation techniques such as brainstorming and affinity grouping are useful in stakeholder engagement because they:
a) Help generate and organize stakeholder input collaboratively
b) Replace the need for a product backlog
c) Are only useful for retrospectives
d) Eliminate the need for a Product Owner
Answer: a) Help generate and organize stakeholder input collaboratively

31. When onboarding a new, highly influential stakeholder mid-project, the team should primarily:
a) Bring them up to speed on the vision, current progress, and how to engage effectively
b) Ignore them until the next major milestone
c) Restart the project from scratch
d) Exclude them from any future decisions
Answer: a) Bring them up to speed on the vision, current progress, and how to engage effectively

32. A “user persona” is a stakeholder engagement artifact used to:
a) Represent a fictional archetype of a real user group to guide design and prioritization decisions
b) Track project costs
c) Replace the sprint backlog
d) Calculate team velocity
Answer: a) Represent a fictional archetype of a real user group to guide design and prioritization decisions

33. Which best describes the value of demoing working software to stakeholders regularly, rather than only providing status reports?
a) It provides concrete, tangible evidence of progress and invites more meaningful feedback
b) It eliminates the need for any further stakeholder communication
c) It replaces the need for a product backlog
d) It is only useful for external customers, not internal stakeholders
Answer: a) It provides concrete, tangible evidence of progress and invites more meaningful feedback

34. When a key stakeholder is unavailable for regular engagement, a good mitigation is to:
a) Identify an empowered proxy who can make timely decisions on their behalf
b) Pause the project indefinitely
c) Make all decisions without their input and inform them later
d) Remove them from the stakeholder register permanently
Answer: a) Identify an empowered proxy who can make timely decisions on their behalf

35. Servant leadership applied to stakeholder engagement means the agile practitioner:
a) Facilitates open dialogue and removes barriers to effective stakeholder collaboration
b) Controls all communication with stakeholders directly
c) Avoids stakeholder involvement to protect the team
d) Delegates all stakeholder engagement to the sponsor only
Answer: a) Facilitates open dialogue and removes barriers to effective stakeholder collaboration

36. Which is the best approach when a stakeholder consistently requests scope additions mid-sprint?
a) Log the request in the backlog for prioritization in a future iteration, protecting the current sprint’s commitment
b) Immediately add it to the current sprint regardless of impact
c) Refuse to ever consider the request
d) Cancel the current sprint to accommodate the request
Answer: a) Log the request in the backlog for prioritization in a future iteration, protecting the current sprint’s commitment

Section 4: Team Performance (Q37–48)

37. Which Tuckman stage is characterized by the team reaching high performance with minimal supervision?
a) Norming
b) Performing
c) Storming
d) Forming
Answer: b) Performing

38. A “T-shaped” team member is someone who:
a) Has deep expertise in one area and broad, working knowledge across others
b) Specializes in only a single narrow skill with no other capability
c) Has no particular skill depth in any area
d) Only performs managerial tasks
Answer: a) Has deep expertise in one area and broad, working knowledge across others

39. Which factor is most critical to sustaining a self-organizing team’s effectiveness over time?
a) Trust, clear goals, and organizational support for autonomy
b) Constant reassignment of team members
c) Detailed daily task assignment by a manager
d) Elimination of all team ceremonies
Answer: a) Trust, clear goals, and organizational support for autonomy

40. Which practice helps a newly formed agile team establish working agreements?
a) A team chartering or working agreement session at project start
b) Skipping team formation activities to save time
c) Assigning working agreements unilaterally without team input
d) Waiting until the team underperforms to define agreements
Answer: a) A team chartering or working agreement session at project start

41. A dysfunctional team pattern where members avoid holding each other accountable is best addressed by:
a) Fostering psychological safety and encouraging direct, respectful accountability conversations
b) Ignoring the pattern since it may resolve itself
c) Having the Scrum Master make all decisions instead
d) Removing all team ceremonies
Answer: a) Fostering psychological safety and encouraging direct, respectful accountability conversations

42. Motivation theory (e.g., Daniel Pink’s autonomy, mastery, and purpose) suggests agile teams perform best when they have:
a) Control over their work, opportunities to grow skills, and a meaningful reason for the work
b) Strict external control with no flexibility
c) No connection to the purpose of their work
d) Repetitive tasks with no skill growth
Answer: a) Control over their work, opportunities to grow skills, and a meaningful reason for the work

43. Which technique can help a geographically distributed team build rapport and trust?
a) Occasional in-person or video-based social interactions alongside regular work collaboration
b) Communicating exclusively through asynchronous email
c) Avoiding any informal interaction
d) Assuming rapport will develop without any deliberate effort
Answer: a) Occasional in-person or video-based social interactions alongside regular work collaboration

44. When two team members have a persistent technical disagreement affecting delivery, the Scrum Master should primarily:
a) Facilitate a structured discussion to reach a resolution or decision path
b) Make the technical decision personally regardless of expertise
c) Ignore the conflict since it’s not their role
d) Remove one team member from the project immediately
Answer: a) Facilitate a structured discussion to reach a resolution or decision path

45. Which best reflects generative (collaborative, trust-based) team culture as opposed to a pathological or bureaucratic culture?
a) Information flows freely, failures lead to inquiry rather than blame, and collaboration is rewarded
b) Information is hoarded, and failures lead to scapegoating
c) Rules are followed rigidly with no room for adaptation
d) Only leadership decisions matter, and team input is discouraged
Answer: a) Information flows freely, failures lead to inquiry rather than blame, and collaboration is rewarded

46. Cross-training team members on multiple skills primarily helps by:
a) Reducing bottlenecks and single points of failure within the team
b) Increasing individual specialization only
c) Reducing overall team flexibility
d) Eliminating the need for collaboration
Answer: a) Reducing bottlenecks and single points of failure within the team

47. Which best describes the role of a facilitator during a team conflict resolution session?
a) Remain neutral, guide the conversation, and help the team reach a shared resolution
b) Take sides to speed up resolution
c) Dictate the outcome without team input
d) Avoid addressing the conflict directly
Answer: a) Remain neutral, guide the conversation, and help the team reach a shared resolution

48. A high-performing agile team’s velocity trend over several sprints becoming more consistent generally indicates:
a) Improved estimation accuracy and predictability in the team’s process
b) The team is underperforming
c) The team should be given significantly more work immediately
d) Velocity has no relationship to team performance
Answer: a) Improved estimation accuracy and predictability in the team’s process

Section 5: Adaptive Planning (Q49–60)

49. Multi-level planning in agile typically includes which levels?
a) Strategic/portfolio, release, and iteration planning
b) Only iteration planning
c) Only a single fixed project plan
d) Only financial planning
Answer: a) Strategic/portfolio, release, and iteration planning

50. Which technique uses historical cycle time data to forecast when a set of items will likely be completed?
a) Monte Carlo simulation (probabilistic forecasting)
b) Fixed deterministic scheduling only
c) Critical path method exclusively
d) Earned value management alone
Answer: a) Monte Carlo simulation (probabilistic forecasting)

51. Which best describes “just enough” planning in agile adaptive planning?
a) Planning to the level of detail needed for the current horizon, avoiding excessive upfront detail
b) Planning every detail of the entire project before starting
c) Skipping planning altogether
d) Planning only the final release with no earlier planning
Answer: a) Planning to the level of detail needed for the current horizon, avoiding excessive upfront detail

52. A release burndown chart primarily helps the team and stakeholders:
a) Track progress toward completing the scope planned for a release
b) Calculate exact story point values for future sprints
c) Replace the sprint planning meeting
d) Determine individual performance ratings
Answer: a) Track progress toward completing the scope planned for a release

53. Which planning artifact typically captures the overall vision, goals, and expected outcomes for a product before detailed backlog items are created?
a) Product vision statement
b) Sprint backlog
c) Burndown chart
d) Risk register
Answer: a) Product vision statement

54. Adaptive planning benefits most from which type of estimation approach?
a) Relative estimation refined iteratively as more is learned
b) A single, fixed estimate locked in at project initiation
c) Estimation performed only by the project sponsor
d) Avoiding estimation altogether
Answer: a) Relative estimation refined iteratively as more is learned

55. A “sprint zero” or initiation iteration is sometimes used to:
a) Set up infrastructure, initial backlog, and team formation before regular delivery sprints begin
b) Deliver the final product increment
c) Replace the need for a product backlog
d) Conduct the project closure activities
Answer: a) Set up infrastructure, initial backlog, and team formation before regular delivery sprints begin

56. Which best explains why agile teams re-prioritize the backlog at the start of each iteration rather than locking it in permanently?
a) It allows the team to incorporate the latest information, feedback, and changing business priorities
b) Backlogs should never change once created
c) Re-prioritization is unnecessary once the release plan is set
d) Only the Scrum Master is allowed to re-prioritize
Answer: a) It allows the team to incorporate the latest information, feedback, and changing business priorities

57. A team’s capacity for an upcoming sprint should be adjusted downward when:
a) Team members have planned time off or reduced availability
b) The backlog contains high-value items
c) The sprint length is shortened for a single sprint only, with the same total working days
d) Stakeholders request additional features
Answer: a) Team members have planned time off or reduced availability

58. Which best distinguishes a hybrid life cycle from a purely adaptive (agile) life cycle?
a) A hybrid life cycle combines predictive elements (e.g., fixed phases) with iterative/incremental delivery for different parts of the work
b) A hybrid life cycle uses no planning of any kind
c) A hybrid life cycle is identical to a purely predictive life cycle
d) A hybrid life cycle cannot include any agile ceremonies
Answer: a) A hybrid life cycle combines predictive elements (e.g., fixed phases) with iterative/incremental delivery for different parts of the work

59. When actual velocity is consistently lower than planned during release planning, the team should:
a) Recalibrate the release plan and forecast using actual observed velocity
b) Ignore the discrepancy and keep the original forecast
c) Increase scope to compensate
d) Blame individual team members publicly
Answer: a) Recalibrate the release plan and forecast using actual observed velocity

60. Which best reflects the purpose of backlog refinement (grooming) sessions?
a) Reviewing, clarifying, and estimating upcoming backlog items to prepare them for future iterations
b) Finalizing the sprint retrospective action items
c) Replacing the sprint review
d) Assigning story points only after the sprint has started
Answer: a) Reviewing, clarifying, and estimating upcoming backlog items to prepare them for future iterations

Section 6: Problem Detection and Resolution (Q61–70)

61. Which practice is designed specifically to surface impediments on a daily basis before they compound?
a) Daily Standup/Daily Scrum
b) Sprint Review
c) Release planning
d) Backlog refinement
Answer: a) Daily Standup/Daily Scrum

62. A “blocked” work item on a Kanban board should trigger the team to:
a) Investigate and address the blocker promptly to restore flow
b) Ignore it until the next planning session
c) Remove the item from the board without resolution
d) Assign it to a different, unrelated team automatically
Answer: a) Investigate and address the blocker promptly to restore flow

63. Which metric helps a team detect that work items are taking increasingly longer to move through the workflow?
a) Cycle time trend
b) Team headcount
c) Number of retrospectives held
d) Sprint length
Answer: a) Cycle time trend

64. An Ishikawa (fishbone) diagram used in an agile team’s problem-solving session helps to:
a) Systematically explore potential causes of a problem across categories
b) Track team velocity over time
c) Replace the need for a retrospective
d) Estimate story points
Answer: a) Systematically explore potential causes of a problem across categories

65. When a critical defect is discovered late in a sprint, the team should generally:
a) Assess its severity and impact, and decide whether to address it within the current sprint or the next
b) Ignore it until the next major release
c) Automatically extend the sprint without team discussion
d) Blame the tester exclusively
Answer: a) Assess its severity and impact, and decide whether to address it within the current sprint or the next

66. A “definition of ready” gap—where a story enters the sprint without clear acceptance criteria—typically leads to:
a) Ambiguity, rework, and delays during the sprint
b) Improved delivery speed
c) No impact on the team’s work
d) Automatic resolution without further planning
Answer: a) Ambiguity, rework, and delays during the sprint

67. Which technique helps teams anticipate and plan for potential risks before they materialize into problems?
a) Risk-adjusted backlog and proactive risk identification during planning
b) Waiting for issues to occur before any planning
c) Ignoring risk assessment in agile environments
d) Assigning all risk management to external auditors only
Answer: a) Risk-adjusted backlog and proactive risk identification during planning

68. A pattern of recurring impediments across multiple sprints, despite being logged, suggests the team should:
a) Escalate the systemic issue for organizational-level resolution
b) Continue logging it without further action indefinitely
c) Accept it as an unchangeable part of the process
d) Remove the impediment from tracking to avoid drawing attention
Answer: a) Escalate the systemic issue for organizational-level resolution

69. Which of the following is an example of a leading indicator that can help detect problems before they significantly affect delivery?
a) An increasing number of items stuck in a Kanban column
b) The final release date
c) The signed project charter
d) The initial product vision statement
Answer: a) An increasing number of items stuck in a Kanban column

70. When a team consistently underestimates the complexity of certain types of stories, the best long-term resolution is to:
a) Use retrospective insights to refine estimation practices for similar future stories
b) Ignore the pattern since estimates are inherently imprecise
c) Stop estimating altogether
d) Assign blame to the Product Owner exclusively
Answer: a) Use retrospective insights to refine estimation practices for similar future stories

Section 7: Continuous Improvement – Product, Process, People (Q71–80)

71. The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle, applied to agile continuous improvement, emphasizes:
a) Iteratively testing changes, evaluating results, and standardizing improvements
b) Making permanent changes without evaluation
c) Avoiding any structured approach to improvement
d) Only applying to product features, not process
Answer: a) Iteratively testing changes, evaluating results, and standardizing improvements

72. Which practice helps an organization scale continuous improvement beyond a single team?
a) Communities of practice and cross-team knowledge sharing
b) Restricting improvement discussions to a single team with no sharing
c) Avoiding any organizational-level learning
d) Applying identical solutions to every team regardless of context
Answer: a) Communities of practice and cross-team knowledge sharing

73. A retrospective technique that uses a timeline to visually recall events and emotions throughout an iteration is called:
a) Timeline retrospective (or “Mad, Sad, Glad” variations)
b) Force field analysis
c) Fishbone diagram
d) SWOT analysis
Answer: a) Timeline retrospective (or “Mad, Sad, Glad” variations)

74. Force field analysis, used in continuous improvement, helps teams:
a) Identify forces supporting and opposing a proposed change
b) Calculate team velocity
c) Prioritize the product backlog
d) Replace the daily standup
Answer: a) Identify forces supporting and opposing a proposed change

75. Which best describes “inspect and adapt” as applied across product, process, and people in agile?
a) Regularly reviewing outcomes and making incremental adjustments across all three dimensions
b) Reviewing only the product, never the process or people
c) Making changes once per year regardless of findings
d) Avoiding any adjustment once a plan is set
Answer: a) Regularly reviewing outcomes and making incremental adjustments across all three dimensions

76. A team wants to improve the quality of its product incrementally. Which practice most directly supports this goal?
a) Incorporating regular user feedback and refining based on actual usage data
b) Freezing the product design after the first release
c) Avoiding customer feedback to maintain the original vision unchanged
d) Ignoring quality metrics entirely
Answer: a) Incorporating regular user feedback and refining based on actual usage data

77. Which is a common barrier to effective continuous improvement in agile teams?
a) Lack of psychological safety, preventing honest feedback during retrospectives
b) Holding regular retrospectives
c) Tracking action items from retrospectives
d) Encouraging open dialogue about problems
Answer: a) Lack of psychological safety, preventing honest feedback during retrospectives

78. Continuous improvement of process should be:
a) Data-informed and tailored to the team’s specific context, not copied blindly from another team
b) Identical across all teams in the organization regardless of context
c) Performed once at project initiation only
d) Avoided if the process already works for a different team
Answer: a) Data-informed and tailored to the team’s specific context, not copied blindly from another team

79. A “learning organization,” a concept relevant to organizational agility, is one that:
a) Continuously adapts and improves based on experience and knowledge sharing
b) Resists any change to established practices
c) Discourages experimentation
d) Punishes failure without allowing learning
Answer: a) Continuously adapts and improves based on experience and knowledge sharing

80. Which best supports continuous improvement of individual team members’ capabilities over time?
a) Regular constructive feedback, mentoring, and opportunities to learn new skills
b) A single annual performance review with no ongoing feedback
c) Avoiding any skill development investment
d) Discouraging experimentation or learning from mistakes
Answer: a) Regular constructive feedback, mentoring, and opportunities to learn new skills

Section 8: Agile Frameworks and Methods (Q81–92)

81. In Scrum, the Sprint Backlog is best described as:
a) The set of Product Backlog items selected for the sprint, plus a plan for delivering them
b) The complete, unprioritized list of all future product features
c) A financial ledger of sprint costs
d) A record of completed sprints from the past year
Answer: a) The set of Product Backlog items selected for the sprint, plus a plan for delivering them

82. Which XP practice involves refactoring code continuously to improve its internal structure without changing its external behavior?
a) Refactoring
b) Sprint planning
c) Release burndown tracking
d) Backlog grooming
Answer: a) Refactoring

83. In Kanban, “Little’s Law” relates which three variables?
a) Work in progress, throughput, and cycle time
b) Story points, velocity, and sprint length
c) Cost, schedule, and scope
d) Risk probability, impact, and exposure
Answer: a) Work in progress, throughput, and cycle time

84. Lean’s “pull system” concept, applied in agile delivery, means that:
a) New work is pulled into the workflow only when capacity is available, rather than pushed regardless of capacity
b) Work is assigned regardless of current capacity
c) All work must be completed simultaneously
d) There is no limit on work in progress
Answer: a) New work is pulled into the workflow only when capacity is available, rather than pushed regardless of capacity

85. DSDM’s principle of “never compromise quality” reflects the idea that:
a) Quality standards should be maintained even as scope is adjusted to fit fixed time and cost
b) Quality can be sacrificed to meet deadlines
c) Quality is only relevant at the final release
d) Quality standards should be renegotiated for every sprint
Answer: a) Quality standards should be maintained even as scope is adjusted to fit fixed time and cost

86. Which of the following best describes the “Definition of Done” concept as used across most agile frameworks?
a) A shared, agreed set of criteria that must be met for a product increment to be considered complete
b) A personal checklist used only by the Scrum Master
c) A document required only for regulatory compliance
d) A concept unique to Kanban and not used elsewhere
Answer: a) A shared, agreed set of criteria that must be met for a product increment to be considered complete

87. Crystal Clear, a lightweight variant of Crystal methodologies, is typically best suited for:
a) Small, co-located teams working on projects with lower criticality
b) Large, distributed enterprise programs
c) Highly regulated, safety-critical systems exclusively
d) Projects with no need for collaboration
Answer: a) Small, co-located teams working on projects with lower criticality

88. Which practice from Extreme Programming emphasizes the whole team having the right and responsibility to modify any part of the codebase?
a) Collective code ownership
b) Fixed individual code ownership
c) Waterfall sequencing
d) Contract negotiation
Answer: a) Collective code ownership

89. A Kanban class of service is used to:
a) Differentiate how different types of work items (e.g., expedite, standard, fixed date) are prioritized and handled
b) Assign story points to backlog items
c) Replace the need for a Kanban board
d) Calculate team velocity
Answer: a) Differentiate how different types of work items (e.g., expedite, standard, fixed date) are prioritized and handled

90. In the Cynefin framework, a “complex” domain problem is best addressed through which approach?
a) Probe-sense-respond, using experimentation and iterative learning
b) Applying a single best practice with certainty
c) Ignoring the problem until it resolves itself
d) Following a fixed, predictive plan with no adaptation
Answer: a) Probe-sense-respond, using experimentation and iterative learning

91. Which best describes the purpose of a “spike” combined with a timebox in agile estimation?
a) Limiting investigation/research effort to a fixed period to reduce uncertainty before committing to further work
b) Extending a sprint indefinitely until research is complete
c) Replacing the need for a product backlog
d) Assigning permanent ownership of a feature
Answer: a) Limiting investigation/research effort to a fixed period to reduce uncertainty before committing to further work

92. Feature-Driven Development’s five basic activities begin with developing an overall model and proceed toward:
a) Building a features list, planning by feature, designing by feature, and building by feature
b) Writing all code before any design activity
c) Skipping planning entirely
d) Assigning tasks without any feature-level breakdown
Answer: a) Building a features list, planning by feature, designing by feature, and building by feature

Section 9: Scaling, Enterprise Agility, and Emerging Practices (Q93–100)

93. A Scaled Agile Framework typically introduces which additional layer of planning beyond the team level?
a) Program- or portfolio-level planning to coordinate multiple teams toward shared objectives
b) No additional planning beyond individual team sprints
c) Elimination of the product backlog
d) Removal of all team-level ceremonies
Answer: a) Program- or portfolio-level planning to coordinate multiple teams toward shared objectives

94. Communities of practice, used in scaled agile environments, primarily serve to:
a) Connect practitioners with similar skills or roles across teams to share knowledge and standards
b) Replace the need for individual team retrospectives
c) Set the organization’s overall budget
d) Serve as the sole decision-making body for the enterprise
Answer: a) Connect practitioners with similar skills or roles across teams to share knowledge and standards

95. When scaling agile to a large program, managing dependencies between teams is best supported by:
a) Regular cross-team synchronization events and shared visibility into each team’s backlog
b) Ignoring dependencies since each team is autonomous
c) A single team absorbing all the work to avoid coordination
d) Eliminating any shared planning across teams
Answer: a) Regular cross-team synchronization events and shared visibility into each team’s backlog

96. Enterprise agility extends agile thinking beyond individual projects to include:
a) Organizational structure, governance, funding models, and leadership practices
b) Only the software development lifecycle
c) Only individual team ceremonies
d) Only customer-facing marketing activities
Answer: a) Organizational structure, governance, funding models, and leadership practices

97. Which factor is most important when introducing AI-assisted tools into an agile team’s workflow, per current guidance?
a) Ensuring the team critically evaluates AI output and retains human judgment in decision-making
b) Allowing AI tools to make all decisions without team review
c) Removing the Product Owner role entirely
d) Avoiding any evaluation of AI-generated work
Answer: a) Ensuring the team critically evaluates AI output and retains human judgment in decision-making

98. Which best reflects a hybrid approach’s suitability for a large enterprise program with both well-understood infrastructure work and evolving user-facing features?
a) Using a predictive approach for the stable infrastructure work and an adaptive approach for the evolving features
b) Forcing the entire program into a single agile framework regardless of the nature of the work
c) Using a purely predictive approach for the entire program regardless of feature volatility
d) Avoiding any structured approach for either type of work
Answer: a) Using a predictive approach for the stable infrastructure work and an adaptive approach for the evolving features

99. When evaluating organizational readiness for scaling agile practices, a key consideration is:
a) Leadership support, funding flexibility, and existing team-level agile maturity
b) Only the number of available software licenses
c) Only the size of the marketing budget
d) Only the personal preference of a single manager
Answer: a) Leadership support, funding flexibility, and existing team-level agile maturity

100. A core takeaway from the Agile Practice Guide regarding tailoring at scale is that organizations should:
a) Select and adapt practices and frameworks to fit their specific context rather than adopting a single approach uniformly
b) Apply one rigid scaled framework to every team regardless of context
c) Avoid any framework or structure when scaling
d) Scale only by increasing headcount, without adjusting processes
Answer: a) Select and adapt practices and frameworks to fit their specific context rather than adopting a single approach uniformly