PMI PMP Certification Practice Test – 100 Questions for Exam Preparation – Set 1
What is the primary purpose of a project charter? a) To define the detailed project schedule b) To authorize the project and give the project manager authority c) To approve the final deliverable d) To assign all project team members Answer: b) To authorize the project and give the project manager authority
What is the main output of the Develop Project Charter process? a) Project Scope Statement b) Business Case c) Project Charter d) Project Management Plan Answer: c) Project Charter
A project manager is assigned after the project charter is approved. What should the project manager do first? a) Create the work breakdown structure b) Review the charter and understand project objectives c) Start executing the project work d) Close procurement contracts Answer: b) Review the charter and understand project objectives
Which document explains why the project is being undertaken from a business perspective? a) Business Case b) Risk Register c) Stakeholder Register d) Issue Log Answer: a) Business Case
What is the best definition of project success in modern project management? a) Completing all tasks exactly as planned b) Delivering outputs only c) Delivering value and achieving intended outcomes d) Avoiding all risks Answer: c) Delivering value and achieving intended outcomes
A project sponsor asks why a project should continue after major market changes. What should the project manager review first? a) Team charter b) Business case and benefits plan c) Procurement documents d) Resource calendar Answer: b) Business case and benefits plan
What is the main purpose of project governance? a) To remove all project risks b) To provide decision-making, oversight and accountability c) To replace the project manager d) To approve only technical deliverables Answer: b) To provide decision-making, oversight and accountability
Which project document identifies people, groups or organizations affected by the project? a) Risk Register b) Stakeholder Register c) Cost Baseline d) Quality Report Answer: b) Stakeholder Register
A stakeholder has high power and high interest in the project. What is the best engagement strategy? a) Monitor only b) Keep satisfied with limited updates c) Manage closely d) Ignore unless issues occur Answer: c) Manage closely
What is the purpose of stakeholder analysis? a) To replace communication planning b) To identify stakeholder needs, influence and expectations c) To assign project tasks d) To calculate project cost Answer: b) To identify stakeholder needs, influence and expectations
A key stakeholder strongly disagrees with the project direction. What should the project manager do first? a) Escalate immediately to the sponsor b) Remove the stakeholder from communications c) Understand the concern and analyze its impact d) Change the project scope immediately Answer: c) Understand the concern and analyze its impact
Which document defines how project information will be shared? a) Communications Management Plan b) Risk Management Plan c) Scope Baseline d) Procurement Statement of Work Answer: a) Communications Management Plan
A stakeholder says they are receiving too much technical detail. What should the project manager do? a) Stop sending updates b) Tailor communication to stakeholder needs c) Send the same report more often d) Ask the team to communicate directly only Answer: b) Tailor communication to stakeholder needs
What is the main purpose of a team charter? a) To authorize the project b) To define team values, working agreements and expectations c) To replace the project schedule d) To approve vendor contracts Answer: b) To define team values, working agreements and expectations
A team is newly formed and members are unclear about roles. What should the project manager do? a) Let the team resolve it later b) Clarify roles, responsibilities and decision rights c) Escalate to the customer d) Reduce the project scope Answer: b) Clarify roles, responsibilities and decision rights
Which leadership style is most useful when the team is skilled and motivated? a) Command-and-control b) Servant leadership c) Autocratic leadership d) Passive leadership Answer: b) Servant leadership
In an agile project, what is the project manager’s most appropriate role? a) Assign every task daily b) Remove impediments and support team collaboration c) Approve every line of code d) Prevent stakeholder feedback Answer: b) Remove impediments and support team collaboration
A conflict arises between two team members. What should the project manager do first? a) Ignore the conflict b) Encourage direct and respectful discussion c) Remove both team members d) Change the project deadline Answer: b) Encourage direct and respectful discussion
Which conflict resolution approach usually produces the most lasting solution? a) Avoiding b) Forcing c) Collaborating d) Smoothing Answer: c) Collaborating
A team member lacks the skill needed for an assigned task. What is the best response? a) Blame the team member b) Provide coaching, training or support c) Remove the task from the project d) Ignore the issue until testing Answer: b) Provide coaching, training or support
What is psychological safety in a project team? a) Avoiding all conflict b) The ability to speak up without fear of blame or punishment c) Eliminating accountability d) Allowing only senior members to make decisions Answer: b) The ability to speak up without fear of blame or punishment
Which approach best supports team empowerment? a) Making all decisions at the executive level b) Giving the team clear goals and authority to decide how to deliver c) Removing all project constraints d) Avoiding performance discussions Answer: b) Giving the team clear goals and authority to decide how to deliver
What is the purpose of a RACI chart? a) To calculate project cost b) To define responsible, accountable, consulted and informed roles c) To prioritize risks d) To measure quality defects Answer: b) To define responsible, accountable, consulted and informed roles
What does emotional intelligence help a project manager do? a) Avoid stakeholder communication b) Understand emotions, build relationships and manage conflict c) Eliminate the need for planning d) Replace project governance Answer: b) Understand emotions, build relationships and manage conflict
A project manager notices declining morale. What should be done first? a) Add more status reports b) Identify root causes through team conversations c) Replace the team d) Cancel the project Answer: b) Identify root causes through team conversations
What is the main purpose of scope management? a) To define and control what is included and excluded from the project b) To hire project team members c) To approve all invoices d) To close contracts Answer: a) To define and control what is included and excluded from the project
What is scope creep? a) Approved scope reduction b) Uncontrolled expansion of project scope c) Schedule compression d) Risk transfer Answer: b) Uncontrolled expansion of project scope
What is the main output of the Create WBS process? a) Scope Baseline b) Risk Register c) Cost Forecast d) Stakeholder Register Answer: a) Scope Baseline
Which component is included in the scope baseline? a) Project charter, business case and benefits plan b) Scope statement, WBS and WBS dictionary c) Risk register, issue log and change log d) Budget, invoices and contracts Answer: b) Scope statement, WBS and WBS dictionary
A customer requests an additional feature after scope approval. What should the project manager do? a) Add it immediately b) Follow the change control process c) Reject it automatically d) Ask the team to work overtime Answer: b) Follow the change control process
What is the purpose of requirements traceability? a) To track requirements from origin through delivery and validation b) To assign project risks c) To approve vendor payments d) To create the team charter Answer: a) To track requirements from origin through delivery and validation
In an agile project, where are product requirements commonly prioritized? a) Issue log b) Product backlog c) Procurement register d) Cost baseline Answer: b) Product backlog
Who is typically responsible for prioritizing the product backlog? a) Project sponsor b) Product owner c) Procurement manager d) Quality auditor Answer: b) Product owner
What is the best approach when requirements are uncertain and likely to change? a) Predictive approach only b) Agile or adaptive approach c) No planning d) Close the project early Answer: b) Agile or adaptive approach
What is the purpose of Validate Scope? a) To formally accept completed deliverables b) To inspect team performance c) To estimate project cost d) To identify new vendors Answer: a) To formally accept completed deliverables
What is the difference between Validate Scope and Control Quality? a) Validate Scope checks quality; Control Quality accepts deliverables b) Validate Scope obtains acceptance; Control Quality checks correctness c) Both are the same d) Neither involves deliverables Answer: b) Validate Scope obtains acceptance; Control Quality checks correctness
What is the purpose of schedule management? a) To define, sequence, estimate and control project timing b) To approve the business case c) To remove stakeholder conflict d) To manage only vendor schedules Answer: a) To define, sequence, estimate and control project timing
What is the critical path? a) The shortest path in the project network b) The sequence of activities that determines the project duration c) The path with the lowest cost d) The list of optional activities Answer: b) The sequence of activities that determines the project duration
What happens if an activity on the critical path is delayed? a) The project always finishes early b) The project finish date may be delayed c) The project cost always decreases d) The risk register is closed Answer: b) The project finish date may be delayed
What is float or slack? a) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project or milestone b) The total project budget c) The number of assigned resources d) The project quality tolerance Answer: a) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project or milestone
What is fast tracking? a) Adding resources to reduce schedule duration b) Performing activities in parallel that were originally planned in sequence c) Reducing project scope without approval d) Delaying noncritical work Answer: b) Performing activities in parallel that were originally planned in sequence
What is crashing? a) Adding resources to shorten the schedule b) Performing work without approval c) Cancelling project activities d) Reducing quality testing Answer: a) Adding resources to shorten the schedule
What is a major risk of fast tracking? a) Increased rework b) Lower communication needs c) Reduced dependency risk d) Guaranteed cost savings Answer: a) Increased rework
What is a major risk of crashing? a) Lower cost b) Increased cost c) Fewer resources d) No schedule impact Answer: b) Increased cost
In agile, what is a sprint? a) A fixed timebox for completing selected work b) A vendor contract c) A final project audit d) A risk category Answer: a) A fixed timebox for completing selected work
What is the purpose of a daily standup? a) To provide a long management report b) To inspect progress, coordinate work and identify impediments c) To approve the business case d) To close the project Answer: b) To inspect progress, coordinate work and identify impediments
What does a burndown chart show? a) Remaining work over time b) Total project cost only c) Stakeholder influence d) Vendor performance Answer: a) Remaining work over time
What does velocity measure in agile? a) The team’s completed work per iteration b) The number of project stakeholders c) The total project budget d) The number of project risks Answer: a) The team’s completed work per iteration
What is the main purpose of cost management? a) To estimate, budget and control project costs b) To define team conflict rules c) To develop stakeholder power maps d) To approve scope changes automatically Answer: a) To estimate, budget and control project costs
What is a cost baseline? a) The approved version of the time-phased project budget b) The total number of team members c) The product backlog d) The stakeholder engagement plan Answer: a) The approved version of the time-phased project budget
What does Earned Value represent? a) The budgeted value of completed work b) The actual money spent c) The total approved budget d) The remaining risk reserve Answer: a) The budgeted value of completed work
If CPI is less than 1.0, what does it indicate? a) The project is under budget b) The project is over budget c) The project is ahead of schedule d) The project has no cost risk Answer: b) The project is over budget
If SPI is less than 1.0, what does it indicate? a) The project is ahead of schedule b) The project is behind schedule c) The project is under budget d) The project is complete Answer: b) The project is behind schedule
What is management reserve used for? a) Known risks with planned responses b) Unknown-unknown risks or unforeseen work within project scope c) Approved team rewards d) Routine operational expenses Answer: b) Unknown-unknown risks or unforeseen work within project scope
What is contingency reserve used for? a) Identified risks with planned responses b) Executive bonuses c) Unapproved scope changes d) Final project celebration Answer: a) Identified risks with planned responses
What is the purpose of quality management? a) To ensure the project satisfies stated and implied needs b) To increase project scope c) To eliminate all changes d) To reduce stakeholder communication Answer: a) To ensure the project satisfies stated and implied needs
What is prevention in quality management? a) Finding defects after delivery b) Keeping defects out of the process c) Accepting all defects d) Reducing requirements Answer: b) Keeping defects out of the process
What is inspection in quality management? a) Finding defects after work is performed b) Preventing all risks c) Approving the project charter d) Creating the cost baseline Answer: a) Finding defects after work is performed
What is the cost of quality? a) Only the cost of testing b) The total cost of conformance and nonconformance c) Only the cost of defects d) The project management fee Answer: b) The total cost of conformance and nonconformance
A project has repeated defects from the same source. What should the project manager use? a) Root cause analysis b) Fast tracking c) Stakeholder mapping d) Contract closure Answer: a) Root cause analysis
What is the purpose of resource management? a) To identify, acquire, develop and manage resources needed for the project b) To approve the business case c) To control only financial resources d) To eliminate project constraints Answer: a) To identify, acquire, develop and manage resources needed for the project
What is resource leveling? a) Adjusting start and finish dates based on resource availability b) Reducing product quality c) Increasing project scope d) Removing dependencies Answer: a) Adjusting start and finish dates based on resource availability
What is resource smoothing? a) Adjusting activities within available float without changing the critical path b) Adding unlimited resources c) Ignoring resource constraints d) Cancelling project activities Answer: a) Adjusting activities within available float without changing the critical path
A key expert is unavailable during a critical activity. What should the project manager do? a) Update the resource plan and evaluate schedule impact b) Ignore the issue c) Cancel the project d) Remove quality requirements Answer: a) Update the resource plan and evaluate schedule impact
What is the best way to improve a virtual team’s collaboration? a) Reduce communication b) Establish clear communication norms and shared tools c) Avoid meetings completely d) Assign work without context Answer: b) Establish clear communication norms and shared tools
What is the purpose of risk management? a) To identify, analyze, respond to and monitor uncertainty b) To remove all uncertainty c) To increase project cost d) To avoid stakeholder engagement Answer: a) To identify, analyze, respond to and monitor uncertainty
What is a risk register? a) A document containing identified risks, analysis and response information b) A list of completed deliverables c) A vendor invoice file d) A project team directory Answer: a) A document containing identified risks, analysis and response information
What is a risk owner? a) The person responsible for monitoring and managing a risk response b) The person who approves all project costs c) The person who creates the charter d) The person who closes the project Answer: a) The person responsible for monitoring and managing a risk response
What is risk avoidance? a) Changing the plan to eliminate the threat b) Accepting the risk without action c) Sharing the risk with the customer only d) Increasing risk probability Answer: a) Changing the plan to eliminate the threat
What is risk mitigation? a) Reducing the probability or impact of a threat b) Ignoring a risk c) Increasing scope d) Closing the issue log Answer: a) Reducing the probability or impact of a threat
What is risk transfer? a) Moving ownership or impact of a threat to a third party b) Removing all risks c) Increasing the project budget without approval d) Accepting the risk internally Answer: a) Moving ownership or impact of a threat to a third party
What is risk acceptance? a) Taking no proactive action except monitoring or preparing contingency b) Eliminating the risk completely c) Assigning the risk to another project d) Hiding the risk from stakeholders Answer: a) Taking no proactive action except monitoring or preparing contingency
What is an opportunity in risk management? a) A negative uncertain event b) A positive uncertain event c) A confirmed issue d) A project constraint Answer: b) A positive uncertain event
What is the best response to a high-probability, high-impact threat? a) Ignore it b) Develop a clear response plan and assign an owner c) Wait until it becomes an issue d) Remove it from the risk register Answer: b) Develop a clear response plan and assign an owner
What is the difference between a risk and an issue? a) A risk is uncertain; an issue has already occurred b) A risk has occurred; an issue is uncertain c) They are the same d) Issues are always positive Answer: a) A risk is uncertain; an issue has already occurred
What is the purpose of procurement management? a) To obtain products, services or results from outside the project team b) To define only internal team roles c) To create the product backlog d) To approve employee vacations Answer: a) To obtain products, services or results from outside the project team
Which contract type gives the buyer the highest cost certainty? a) Cost-reimbursable b) Time and materials c) Fixed-price d) Letter of intent Answer: c) Fixed-price
Which contract type is most useful when the scope is uncertain and flexibility is needed? a) Cost-reimbursable b) Firm fixed-price c) Fixed-price incentive fee only d) Purchase order only Answer: a) Cost-reimbursable
What is a major risk of a time and materials contract? a) The buyer may have less cost control if work is not capped b) The seller receives no payment c) The scope can never change d) The contract requires no monitoring Answer: a) The buyer may have less cost control if work is not capped
What is the purpose of a make-or-buy analysis? a) To decide whether work should be performed internally or procured externally b) To approve final acceptance c) To close the project charter d) To assign stakeholder power Answer: a) To decide whether work should be performed internally or procured externally
What is integrated change control? a) Reviewing, approving and managing changes across the project b) Allowing any stakeholder to change scope c) Avoiding all change requests d) Updating only the project schedule Answer: a) Reviewing, approving and managing changes across the project
Who typically approves major change requests in a formal project environment? a) Change Control Board b) Any team member c) Vendor only d) End user only Answer: a) Change Control Board
What should a project manager do before approving a scope change? a) Analyze impact on scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk and value b) Start the work immediately c) Ignore the sponsor d) Remove the change from the log Answer: a) Analyze impact on scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk and value
What is the purpose of lessons learned? a) To capture knowledge for current and future projects b) To assign blame c) To replace quality control d) To avoid stakeholder communication Answer: a) To capture knowledge for current and future projects
When should lessons learned be captured? a) Only at the end of the project b) Throughout the project and at closure c) Only before the charter is approved d) Only during procurement Answer: b) Throughout the project and at closure
What is the purpose of project closure? a) To formally complete the project or phase b) To start planning c) To add new scope d) To remove stakeholder records Answer: a) To formally complete the project or phase
Before closing a project, what should the project manager confirm? a) All deliverables are accepted and closure activities are complete b) All risks were avoided c) The project had no changes d) No lessons were learned Answer: a) All deliverables are accepted and closure activities are complete
In agile, what is the purpose of a retrospective? a) To inspect the product increment only b) To improve team process and collaboration c) To approve the project charter d) To cancel the backlog Answer: b) To improve team process and collaboration
In agile, what is the purpose of a sprint review? a) To demonstrate completed work and gather feedback b) To privately evaluate team members c) To approve vendor contracts d) To create the business case Answer: a) To demonstrate completed work and gather feedback
What is the best reason to use a hybrid delivery approach? a) The project has both stable and evolving components b) The team wants to avoid planning c) The sponsor does not want governance d) The project has no uncertainty Answer: a) The project has both stable and evolving components
A project includes a regulated hardware component and an evolving software component. Which approach is most suitable? a) Predictive only b) Agile only c) Hybrid d) No defined approach Answer: c) Hybrid
What is tailoring in project management? a) Selecting and adapting methods, processes and artifacts to fit the project context b) Following every process exactly the same way c) Avoiding governance d) Eliminating stakeholder input Answer: a) Selecting and adapting methods, processes and artifacts to fit the project context
What factor should most influence the choice of project life cycle? a) Project uncertainty, requirements stability, risk and delivery needs b) The project manager’s personal preference only c) The number of meeting rooms d) The project title Answer: a) Project uncertainty, requirements stability, risk and delivery needs
How can AI best support project management? a) By replacing all human judgment b) By assisting analysis, forecasting, documentation and decision support c) By removing the need for stakeholders d) By approving all changes automatically Answer: b) By assisting analysis, forecasting, documentation and decision support
What should a project manager do when using AI-generated project recommendations? a) Accept them without review b) Validate assumptions, data quality and risks before using them c) Share confidential data freely d) Avoid informing the team Answer: b) Validate assumptions, data quality and risks before using them
A project uses AI to estimate schedules. What is a key concern? a) AI estimates never need validation b) Historical data quality and bias may affect accuracy c) AI eliminates all uncertainty d) Stakeholders are no longer needed Answer: b) Historical data quality and bias may affect accuracy
How should sustainability be considered in project management? a) Only after the project closes b) As part of planning, decision-making, delivery and benefits evaluation c) Only by the finance team d) Only if it reduces scope Answer: b) As part of planning, decision-making, delivery and benefits evaluation
A project option has a lower upfront cost but creates higher environmental impact and long-term operating cost. What should the project manager recommend? a) Select the lowest upfront cost automatically b) Evaluate total value, lifecycle impact and stakeholder expectations c) Ignore sustainability d) Remove the option from discussion without analysis Answer: b) Evaluate total value, lifecycle impact and stakeholder expectations
What is the main purpose of benefits realization management? a) To ensure project outputs lead to intended business value b) To close risks quickly c) To increase documentation volume d) To avoid measuring outcomes Answer: a) To ensure project outputs lead to intended business value
A completed project delivered all outputs, but users are not adopting the solution. What should the project manager focus on? a) Claim success because all outputs were delivered b) Work with stakeholders to address adoption barriers and realize benefits c) Close the project without review d) Blame the users Answer: b) Work with stakeholders to address adoption barriers and realize benefits
